maybe can help you
Which of the following can be done to allow the users on the 10.0.0.0 network to communicate with the Web Server shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)
* Configure the
• Configure the Web Server with a private address.
* Configure the
• Change the Internet link IP address of 128.56.0.0 to a private address.
• Configure the
2 What is the default number of pings issued by a DHCP server to a pool address before sending the DHCPOFFER to a client?
• one
* two
• three
• four
• five
3 What is the purpose of the DHCPDECLINE message?
• If the DHCP client received multiple DHCPOFFERs, it uses the DHCPDECLINE to refuse the offers it does not use.
• If the DHCP server sends an IP configuration update that the DHCP client does not need, it uses the DHCPDECLINE to refuse the information.
• The DHCP server uses the DHCPDECLINE message to refuse a DHCP client's request for IP configuration information.
* If the DHCP client detects that the address supplied by the DHCP server is in use on the network, it uses the DHCPDECLINE to refuse the offer.
4 Which configuration parameters are provided by the dynamic allocation process of DHCP? (Choose three.)
* Gateway address
* DNS server
• DHCP Server
* Subnet mask
• Key server
• ARP server
5
What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco 806 broadband router?
• defines which addresses are allowed out of the router
• defines which addresses are allowed into the router
* defines which addresses can be translated
• defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool
6
Given the accompanying debug output from a Cisco router, what kind of address is 10.10.10.3 with the IP identification number of 29855?
* inside local
• inside global
• outside local
• outside global
7
Given the accompanying graphic, which statement would be applied to the S0 interface when configuring NAT on the
• ip nat inside
* ip nat outside
• ip pat inside
• ip pat outside
8
Given the accompanying graphic, which addresses could be assigned to traffic leaving S0 as a result of the statement ip nat pool Tampa 179.9.8.96 179.9.8.111 netmask 255.255.255.240? (Choose two.)
• 10.0.0.125
• 179.9.8.95
* 179.9.8.98
* 179.9.8.101
• 179.9.8.112
9
Refer to the exhibit. Which command would establish a group of 30 IP addresses that could be used to hide inside addresses from the Internet?
• ip nat pool
• ip nat pool
* ip nat pool
• ip nat pool
10
Given the accompanying diagram, which commands are necessary to implement PAT on the
* access-list 10 permit 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255
• access-list 10 permit 171.11.0.0 0.0.255.255
• ip nat inside source static 192.168.10.1 171.11.0.0
* ip nat inside source list 10 interface S0 overload
* ip nat outside
* ip nat inside
11 What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT?
• PAT uses the word "overload" at the end of the access-list statement to share a single registered address.
• Static NAT allows an unregistered address to map to multiple registered addresses.
• Dynamic NAT allows hosts to receive the same global address each time external access is required.
* PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations.
12 Which of the following are broadcasts sent by a client to a DHCP server? (Choose two.)
* DHCPDISCOVER
• DHCPRELEASE
• DHCPACK
* DHCPREQUEST
• DHCPOFFER
13 In addition to assigning addresses from predefined pools, which other services can a DHCP server offer? (Choose three.)
* DNS server addresses
* domain names
• global IP assignments
• NAT translations
* WINS server addresses
14 Users are complaining that they cannot attach to network resources. A technician has confirmed that clients are not properly receiving IP configuration information through the DHCP process. The network administrator wants to watch the DHCP process while the technician tries to release and renew addresses on the clients. Which command would the network administrator use to monitor the process of address allocation?
• show ip dhcp server statistics
• show ip dhcp binding
* debug ip dhcp server events
• debug ip dhcp binding
15
Refer to the graphic. Which command would allow the router to forward DHCP broadcasts from Host A to the DHCP server?
* ip helper-address
• dhcp helper-address
• dhcp relay-agent
• dhcp-relay
16 What is the default lease time for addresses assigned to clients through Easy IP?
* twenty-four hours
• forty-eight hours
• one week
• two weeks
17
The Raleigh router shown in the diagram is configured with PAT. Which of the following must be changed if the private network is migrated to a 10.0.0.0 network? (Choose two.)
* E0 interface address
• S0 interface address
* the access-list statement
• the NAT outside interface
• the NAT inside interface
18 A network administrator needs to configure a router to offer DHCP services. Assuming the router is operating with factory defaults and the IOS supports DHCP, what must be done to start the DHCP service?
• Use the global configuration command service dhcp.
• Use the privileged command service dhcp start.
• Use the start service dhcp command during the setup processes.
* Do nothing. The DHCP service is enabled by default during start up.
19 Which of the following traffic types are supported by Cisco IOS NAT? (Choose two.)
• Routing table updates
* ICMP
* FTP
• BOOTP
• SNMP
20 Which configuration information might a DHCPOFFER include? (Choose three.)
* IP address
* DNS server address
• DHCP binding
* Lease time
• DHCP database
21 A company was issued 207.48.12.8/29 as its registered address from its ISP. Which of the following is a solution that will allow Internet access to 300 employees simultaneously?
• VLSM to further subnet the registered address and create more IP addresses
• normal subnetting on the Class C network and address the host
* RFC 1918 and port address translation
• this is an impossible scenario because there are not enough addresses
1(3)
A network administrator needs to address a network with 2 WAN links and 5 Ethernet links on a router. What is the most efficient way for the network administrator to address this network while wasting the fewest number of host addresses?
STP
DHCP
*VLSM
DNS
2(1)
Which subnet mask matches the 172.18.20.100/19 IP address?
*255.255.224.0
255.255.240.0
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.192
255.255.192.0
3(3,5)
Refer to the exhibit. Which two IP addresses can a network administrator legitimately choose from to assign to the host on the subnet connected to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface of the router? (Choose two.)
172.16.10.129
172.16.10.114
*172.16.10.122
172.16.10.128
*172.16.10.125
172.16.10.118
4(1,2,5)
Which addresses are considered network addresses of 200.199.48.0/29 when subnet zero is in effect? (Choose three.)
*200.199.48.0
*200.199.48.16
200.199.48.52
200.199.48.114
*200.199.48.200
200.199.48.242
5(4)
A client is communicating with a server on a different segment of the network. How does the server determine what service is being requested by the client?
The server will apply the default service configured in directory services.
The server will use ARP to discover the appropriate service from the local router.
The server will send a request to the client asking for the appropriate service.
*The server will determine the appropriate service from the destination port field.
6(3)
There are a large number of networking protocols that exist at various layers of the OSI model. What is a protocol?
a standards organization
a wiring specification
*a set of rules and conventions
a LAN/WAN standard
a set of logical and physical concepts
7(4)
Refer to the exhibit. If router JAX routes between VLANs including VLAN1, how many broadcast domains are present in the topology?
1
2
3
*4
5
8(3,5)
Which statements describe nondeterministic MAC protocols? (Choose two.)
Hosts are arranged in a logical ring topology.
Computers only transmit when they possess a token.
*Hosts transmit using a first-come, first-served approach.
Hosts take turns transmitting data.
*NICs listen for the absence of a signal before transmitting.
9(1)
A network technician is teaching a trainee to configure a router. The technician begins by explaining the different modes available during configuration. What router mode allows a limited set of monitoring commands that can be used to obtain but not alter basic configuration information?
*user mode
privileged mode
global mode
enable mode
configuration mode
10(3)
Refer to the exhibit. Which group of commands will configure the network with static routes?
RTR-1(config)# ip route 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0 198.65.14.2 RTR-1(config)# ip route 198.65.14.0 255.255.255.252 198.65.14.2 RTR-2(config)# ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 198.65.14.1 RTR-2(config)# ip route 198.65.14.0 255.255.255.252 198.65.14.1
RTR-1(config)# ip route 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0 198.65.14.1 RTR-2(config)# ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 198.65.14.2
*RTR-1(config)# ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 198.65.14.2 RTR-2(config)# ip route 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0 198.65.14.1
RTR-1(config)# ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 198.65.14.1 RTR-2(config)# ip route 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0 198.65.14.2
11(1,3,6)
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration commands must be made on the
*Sydney(config-if)# ip address 192.168.15.6 255.255.255.252
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 192.168.15.4 255.255.255.252
*Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000
Sydney(config-if)# no clock rate
Sydney(config-if)# shutdown
*Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
12(2)
A technician is recovering the password on a router. The technician has entered ROMMON mode, changed the configuration register to 0x2142, and reset the router. The technician enters configuration mode on the router, changes the password, and enters the copy running-config startup-config command. After changing the configuration register to 0x2102, the technician reloads the router. When the router reloads, the technician finds that only the password is in the configuration. What could be the problem?
The technician changed the configuration register to the wrong value.
*The technician did not copy the startup configuration to the running configuration before changing the password.
The technician should have changed the configuration register to 0x2100.
The router ignored NVRAM and did not load the startup configuration file when it rebooted.
The technician did not copy the running configuration to the startup configuration before changing the password.
13(2)
A technician is asked to configure a privileged EXEC password that uses a strong MD5 algorithm for encryption. What command or commands should the technician use to configure the password?
Router(config)# enable password cisco
*Router(config)# enable secret cisco
Router(config)# enable password cisco md5
Router(config)# enable password cisco Router(config)# password encrypt all
Router(config)# enable secret password cisco Router(config)# service password-encryption
14(2,5,6)
Which three statements describe the routing process? (Choose three.)
A router uses Spanning Tree Protocol to direct user traffic.
*A router must use information learned from other routers to reach remote routers.
A router uses a routed protocol to pass routing information to its neighbors.
Static routes are used to route packets to destinations that are not in any routing table.
*When static routing is used, the network administrator must configure the information about remote routers manually.
*A router makes forwarding decisions based upon the destination IP address of a packet.
15(1,4)
Which statements describe the routing table? (Choose two.)
*The gateway of last resort must be configured to direct unknown traffic requests.
Static routes are represented by the letter D for "directly connected".
The routed protocols that are configured learn the usable routes to construct the routing table.
*Routers base packet forwarding decisions on information in the routing table.
In link-state routing, each router periodically receives its neighbor's entire routing table.
16(2,3,5)
A network administrator needs to select the appropriate routing protocol for a network. What information should the administrator obtain to select the appropriate routing protocol? (Choose three.)
type of cabling that will be used between devices
*the size of the network
*bandwidth available on the links
distance between the devices in the network
*processing power of the routers
placement of the devices in the MDF or IDF
17(4)
Which feature of distance vector routing protocols prevents a router from sending information learned about a route back to the router it received the information from?
poison reverse
triggered updates
count to infinity
*split-horizon
route poisoning
k thats enough
18
Which command or commands will correctly configure the bandwidth for OSPF cost calculation?
Router(config-ospf)# bandwidth 64000
Router(config)# interface S0/0Router(config-ospf)# bandwidth 64000
*Router(config)# interface s0/0Router(config-if)# bandwidth 64000
Router(config)# router ospf 1Router(config-router)# bandwidth 64000
19
As a packet is being moved across a routed network from host A to host B it must pass across a series of routers. What is true of the Layer 2 and Layer 3 addresses in the packet header as it moves from router to router?
The Layer 3 destination address will be the Layer 3 address of the next hop router.
*The Layer 2 destination address will be the Layer 2 address of the next hop router.
The Layer 2 source address will be the Layer 2 address of the next hop router.
The Layer 3 source address will be the Layer 3 address of the next hop router.
20
A technician is troubleshooting a loss of connectivity and suspects that an incorrectly configured ACL is the cause. Which commands can the technician use to verify that the ACL is incorrectly configured? (Choose two.)
show protocols
*show running-config
show ip route
*show access-lists
show ip interface
21
An administrator has been asked to explain ACLs to a trainee. What are some of the suggested uses for ACLs that the trainee should learn? (Choose three.)
*limit network traffic and increase performance
notify downstream devices in the event of increased traffic or congestion
determine whether interfaces are active or shutdown during peak usage
*provide traffic flow control
*provide a basic level of security for network access
open additional links when paths become saturated
22
A network administrator is writing a standard ACL that will deny any traffic from the 172.16.0.0/16 network, but permit all other traffic. Which of commands should be used? (Choose two.)
Router(config)# access-list 95 deny any
*Router(config)# access-list 95 deny 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255
Router(config)# access-list 95 deny 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0
*Router(config)# access-list 95 permit any
Router(config)# access-list 95 host 172.16.0.0
Router(config)# access-list 95 172.16.0.0 255.255.255.255
23
Once an ACL has been created, it must be applied in the proper location to have the desired effect. What rules should be observed when applying ACLs? (Choose two.)
Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the source.
*Outbound filters do not affect traffic that originates within the local router.
The inbound and outbound interface should be referenced as if looking from the outside of a router.
*Extended ACLs should be applied closest to the source.
Inbound ACLs only affect traffic that originates within the local router.
24
A technician is testing connectivity between two hosts. What command can be used to test application layer connectivity between the two hosts?
ping
traceroute
*telnet
ipconfig
25
In the process of training a new technician, the network administrator begins by teaching the trainee about Layer 1 problems that can interrupt network connectivity. Which three issues represent Layer 1 problems? (Choose three.)
*device turned off
incorrect IP address
improperly configured serial interface
no routing protocol enabled
*broken cable
*incorrectly wired cable
26
Refer to the exhibit. What command would produce this output?
debug
debug icmp
*debug ip icmp
debug icmp events
debug icmp transactions
27
The process of troubleshooting a network problem is accomplished by sequentially testing the OSI layers from the bottom upward. If the network cables and all connections have already been checked and the error still exists, what should be checked next?
*interface encapsulation and clockrate
routing protocol errors
incorrect subnet mask
transceiver problem
28
What two pieces of information can be obtained from the show ip route command? (Choose two.)
*the IP address of the gateway of last resort
the names of directly connected neighbors
the total number of routers on the internal network
*the routing protocols that are enabled
the physical and logical topology of the network
29
What is the purpose of the show cdp neighbors detail command? (Choose two.)
It displays information about interfaces on which CDP is enabled.
*It displays information about a specific neighbor.
It displays CDP updates on the remote device.
*It displays information about networks that are directly connected to the router.
It displays the CDP updates received by the neighboring device.
30
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a routing issue on RTR-2. RTR-1 is connected to RTR-2 via serial 0/0 but all routes to RTR-1 are sent via RTR-3. Based on the output from the show ip protocols command on RTR-1, what could be the problem?
An inbound access list on serial 0/0 of RTR-1 is filtering routing updates.
The serial 0/0 interface has been configured with the passive-interface command.
*EIGRP has been configured with the passive-interface command on the serial 0/0 interface.
Automatic network summarization should have been configured for EIGRP.
An outbound access list on serial 0/0 of RTR-1 is filtering the routing updates.
31
An administrator is teaching a new technician about Layer 2 problems that can interrupt network connectivity. Which three problems are Layer 2 problems? (Choose three.)
incorrect subnet mask
device turned off
*improper encapsulation set
*NIC problems
incorrect routing protocol
*improper clockrate settings
32
What layer of the OSI model is being used when a technician is using the command ping to test connectivity between two hosts on different segments of a network?
physical
data link
*network
transport
application
33
A help desk technician is working with a customer to determine why a router does not use the configuration file stored in NVRAM when it boots. The technician suspects that the configuration register has been changed. What command should the technician tell the customer to use to determine the router register setting?
show flash
show startup-config
show running-config
*show version
show nvram
CCNA 4 - Module 2 Exam Answers
1 Which of the following is commonly used as Data Terminal Equipment?
• ISDN
• modem
* router
• CSU/DSU
2 Which term describes the cabling that connects the customer site to the nearest exchange of the WAN service provider?
• CPE
• CO
* local loop
• DCE
• DTE
3 On which of the following are most Layer 2 WAN encapsulations based?
• IP
• PPP
* HDLC
• SLIP
• HSSI
• CSU
4 A U.S. company requires a WAN connection used only to transfer sales data from individual stores to the home office. All transfers will occur after business hours. The required bandwidth for this connection is estimated to be less than 38 kbps. Which type of connection requires the least investment for this company?
• ATM
• ISDN
* analog dialup
• T1 Leased Line
5 A company requires a WAN connection that will carry 64 kbps and allow fast call setup time. The connection does not need to carry video. What is the best choice for this company?
• ATM
* ISDN BRI
• X.25
• analog dialup
6 Which of the following describes a packet-switched network using connection-oriented data transfer? (Choose two.)
* Each packet carries an identifier.
• Each packet carries full addressing information.
• Each switch in the route must evaluate the addressing information to determine where to send the packet.
• Each switch determines where to send the packet by examining tables in memory.
• The addressing information is used to set switches along the route of data transfer to create a continuous copper circuit.
7 Which of the following connections will provide the equivalent of a T1/E1 connection and is intended for large businesses?
• BRI
* PRI
• DLCI
• PSTN
• POTS
8 A large company already has a T1 leased line but this connection is inadequate at peak business hours. Furthermore, they would like a backup WAN connection in case their leased line temporarily fails. What type of WAN connection is commonly used in this situation?
• X.25
• DSL
* ISDN
• cable modem
• 56 kbps
9 Which of the statements regarding DSL are correct? (Choose three.)
• DSL provides a consistent bandwidth of 2.154 Mbps.
• DSL connections provide a fast dialup to establish a WAN connection.
* DSL connects the local loop to a digital subscriber line access multiplexer.
* DSL bandwidth varies and can exceed the bandwidth of a T1/E1 leased line.
* For DSL to function properly, the local loop must be less than 5.5 kilometers (3.5 miles).
• DSL is a popular choice for enterprises that need to connect home users to the local network due to strong security.
10 A European company needs a low cost, dialup WAN connection to validate transactions for point-of-sale card readers. Which connection type is commonly used for this situation?
• ATM
* X.25
• Frame Relay
• Leased lines
11 Which statement is true regarding WAN technologies?
• Most WANS use only one technology throughout the infrastructure such as ISDN, Frame Relay or ATM.
• Data transfer speeds on the WAN are typically faster than the speeds on a LAN.
* WANs operate at the lower three layers of the OSI model.
• WANs are unable to support the transfer of voice or video traffic.
12 Depending on the company size and geographical layout, there might be many end points on the company WAN. Why is it important to identify all the end points of the WAN before choosing a WAN design?
• to determine the routing protocol to be used on the WAN link
* to determine the WAN topology
• to determine the requirements for latency and jitter
• to determine the signaling protocol to be used on the WAN link
13 Which of the following is true of WANs?
• Shared network WAN technologies such as Frame Relay and ATM are more expensive but offer less latency and jitter than dedicated lines.
• ISDN is suitable for large enterprises.
* The more network devices that data has to pass through across the WAN, the more latency and less reliability the network will experience.
• WANs typically incorporate only one technology such as ISDN, Frame Relay, or ATM.
14 Which statements are correct regarding ATM connections? (Choose two.)
• uses only PVCs
* is useful for video transfers
* has data rates beyond 155 Mbps
• cells have 32 byte payload and a 5 byte overhead
• mandates single virtual circuits on a single leased line connection
15 Why is it important to identify the type of traffic that will be carried on the WAN links before choosing a WAN technology?
• to determine the routing protocol to be used on the WAN link
• to determine the WAN topology
* to determine the requirements for latency and jitter
• to determine the type of signaling protocol to be used on the WAN link
16 A new international company needs to have a design for WAN connectivity. The company will have at least five offices in every state in the
• a mesh network of all branch WANs
• a simple star topology connecting all branch LANs to a central router with multiple interfaces
• a one layer design using Frame Relay links between LANs
* a three layer hierarchical topology interconnecting branch LANs within an area, the area LANs within a region, and connecting the regions to form the core of the WAN
1. Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? (Choose two.)
* Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route.
A router first installs routes with higher administrative distances.
The value of the administrative distance can not be altered by the network administrator.
* Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.
The metric is always determined based on hop count.
The metric varies depending which Layer 3 protocol is being routed, such as IP or IPX.
2.
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how R1 will determine the best path to R2?
R1 will install a RIP route using network A in its routing table because the administrative distance of RIP is higher than EIGRP.
R1 will install a RIP route using network A in its routing table because the path cost from RIP is lower than EIGRP.
* R1 will install an EIGRP route using network B in its routing table because the administrative distance of EIGRP is lower than RIP.
R1 will install an EIGRP route using network B in its routing table because the path cost from EIGRP is lower than RIP.
R1 will install an EIGRP route and a RIP route in its routing table and load balance between them.
3. Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
* sends subnet mask information in routing updates
sends complete routing table update to all neighbors
is supported by RIP version 1
* allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology
reduces the amount of address space available in an organization
4. Which command would the network administrator issue to determine if load balancing is in effect on a router?
show ip protocols
* show ip route
show ip interface brief
show ip interface
5. Which statement is true regarding routing protocols?
RIP uses hop count and bandwidth as the metric for path selection and sendsupdates periodically.
OSPF is a Cisco proprietary protocol that sends updates triggered by topology changes.
* EIGRP uses DUAL to calculate the shortest path and can be configured to do unequal cost load balancing.
BGP is a path vector interior routing protocol.
6. Which two conditions would create a setting where the use of a distance-vector routing protocol would be efficient? (Choose two.)
the network requires a special hierarchical design
fast convergence of the network is crucial
* the network is using a hub and spoke topology
* the network is using a flat design
there are more than 15 hops between the most distant routers
7. What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
It is used to build and maintain ARP tables.
It provides a method for segmenting and reassembling data packets.
It allows an administrator to devise an addressing scheme for the network.
* It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.
It provides a procedure for encoding and decoding data into bits for packet forwarding.
8. Which of the following best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?
They use hop count as their only metric.
They only send out updates when a new network is added.
* They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.
They flood the entire network with routing updates.
9. Which of the following is associated with link-state routing protocols?
low processor overhead
poison reverse
routing loops
split horizon
* shortest-path first calculations
10. Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?
Routers will not allow packets to be forwarded until the network has converged.
Hosts are unable to access their gateway until the network has converged.
* Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.
Routers will not allow configuration changes to be made until the network has converged.
11. Which of the following conditions must be met in order for a network to have converged?
The routers in the network are operating with dynamic routing protocols.
The routers in the network are operating with compatible versions of IOS.
The routers in the network are operating with the same routing tables.
* The routers in the network are operating with consistent routing knowledge.
12. Which two statements are true regarding metrics? (Choose two.)
RIP uses bandwidth as a metric.
OSPF uses delay as a metric.
* EIGRP uses bandwidth as a metric.
* OSPF uses cost based on bandwidth as a metric.
RIP uses delay as a metric.
EIGRP uses hop count only as a metric.
13. Which two statements are true regarding the advantages of the use of static routes? (Choose two).
* increased security
reduced effort in configuring routes
* the administrator maintains control over routing
easier to implement in a growing network
reduces the chance of routing errors
increased router resource usage
14. The following line of code is displayed in a routing table:
R 209.165.201.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.252.2, 00:00:16, S0/0/0
What can be concluded from this output?
A packet destined for host 192.168.252.2 will be forwarded out the interface connected to network 209.165.201.0/24.
* The value, 120, is used to determine the best path when a router has more than one routing protocol configured for the same destination network.
This route was manually configured using the ip route command.
192.168.252.2 is an interface on the router that produced this output.
15. What will be the result of the following commands?
ORL(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
ORL(config-if)# ip address 172.16.3.1 255.255.255.0
ORL(config-if)# no shutdown
The 172.16.3.0 network will be routed by any dynamic routing protocol automatically.
* A routing table entry is made to the 172.16.3.0 network with a code of “C”.
A static route is required to route traffic to the 172.16.3.0 network.
The commands will be saved to the startup-configuration
16. An engineer creates a static route by entering the Router(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.2 command. What can be concluded about this route?
* The administrative distance of this route is 1.
192.168.1.2 is the address of an interface on this router.
This route will display as a directly connected network in the routing table.
Packets with a destination IP address of 192.168.1.2 will be forwarded to the 10.0.0.0/24 network first.
17.
Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running EIGRP. All interfaces are operational and packets can be forwarded between all networks. What information will be found in the routing table for Router1?
Router1 will have 6 directly connected networks.
* The administrative distance of the route to network 172.16.0.0 will be 90.
The metric for routes to 172.16.0.0 will be 1.
The interface that is used to forward packets to 172.16.0.0 will always be the S0/1 interface.
18 The following line of code is present in the routing table:
O 10.16.1.0/27 [110/129] via 192.168.1.5, 00:00:05, Serial0/0/1
What does the number 129 indicate in this output?
* The cost for this link has a value of 129.
The clock rate on this serial interface is set to 129,000.
The next-hop router is 129 hops away from this router.
This route has been updated 129 times in this routing table.
19. A growing medium-sized manufacturing company recently began to have routing instability issues. The company uses static routes and has a mixture of over 30 Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The network administrator has decided to convert the network to dynamic routing. What characteristics of protocols should be considered in this selection process?
Distance vector routing protocols, such as RIP, converge more quickly than do link-state routing protocols.
EIGRP can be used on all of the routers in the company.
* OSPF can be used between the routers.
An exterior routing protocol, such as BGP, is recommended for growing companies.
20.
Refer to the exhibit. If RIP is the routing protocol, what is the value of the metric from router A to network 192.168.5.0/24?
* 3
4
56
624
724
21. A router learns two paths with equal metrics to a destination network via the RIP routing protocol. How will the router handle packets to the destination network?
The router will install the first route it learned into the routing table.
* The router will install both routes in the routing table and load balance between the two.
The router will put the first route in the routing table, and denote the second route as a backup route.
The router will pick the path with the higher bandwidth and will place it in the routing table
1. Which event will cause a triggered update?
an update routing timer expires
a corrupt update message is received
* a route is installed in the routing table
the network is converged
2. Three routers running a distance-vector routing protocol lost all power, including the battery backups. When the routers reload, what will happen?
They will share all routes saved in NVRAM prior to the power loss with their directly connected neighbors.
They will multicast hello packets to all other routers in the network to establish neighbor adjacencies.
* They will send updates that include only directly connected routes to their directly connected neighbors.
They will broadcast their full routing table to all routers in the network.
3. What does the RIP holddown timer do?
ensures an invalid route has a metric of 15
prevents a router from sending any updates after it has introduced a routing loop into the network
ensures every new route is valid before sending an update
* instructs routers to ignore updates, for a specified time or event, about possible inaccessible routes
4. Which two statements are true regarding the function of the RIPv1 routing updates? (Choose two).
updates are broadcast only when there are changes to the topology
* updates are broadcast at regular intervals
broadcast are sent to 0.0.0.0
* broadcasts are sent to 255.255.255.255
updates contain the entire network topology
only changes are included in the updates
5. Which of the following statements are correct about RIP?
uses a broadcast to update all other routers in the network every 60 seconds
uses a multicast address to update other routers every 90 seconds
* will send out an update if there is a failure of a link
updates only contain information about routes that have changed since last update
6. Which two statements describe EIGRP? (Choose two.)
EIGRP can be used with Cisco and non-Cisco routers.
* EIGRP sends triggered updates whenever there is a change in topology that influences the routing information.
EIGRP has an infinite metric of 16.
* EIGRP sends a partial routing table update, which includes just routes that have been changed.
EIGRP broadcasts its updates to all routers in the network.
EIGRP broadcasts its updates to all routers in the network.
7. Which statement is true regarding cisco’s RIP_JITTER variable?
It prevents the synchronization of routing updates by buffering the updates as they leave the router interfaces.
* It prevents the synchronization of routing updates by subtracting a random length of time ranging from 0% to 15% of the specified interval time from the next routing update interval.
It prevents the synchronization of routing updates by causing the router to skip every other scheduled update time.
It prevents the synchronization of routing updates by forcing the router to listen when its time for other updates on the lines before sending its update.
8. What actions will occur after RouterA loses connectivity to network 114.125.16.0? (Choose two.)
* RouterB will include network 123.92.76.0 and 136.125.85.0 in its update to RouterA.
During the next update interval, RouterB will send a RIP update out both ports that includes the inaccessible network.
During the next update interval, RouterC will send an update to RouterB stating that network 114.125.16.0 is accessible in 2 hops.
* Router C will learn of the loss of connectivity to network 114.125.16.0 from RouterB.
RouterB will include network 123.92.76.0 and 136.125.85.0 in its update to RouterC.
9. Which of the following methods does split horizon use to reduce incorrect routing information?
Routing updates are split in half to reduce the update time.
* Information learned from one source is not distributed back to that source.
New route information must be learned from multiple sources to be accepted.
The time between updates is split in half to speed convergence.
New route information is suppressed until the system has converged.
10.
The graphic shows a network that is configured to use RIP routing protocol. Router2 detects that the link to Router1 has gone down. It then advertises the network for this link with a hop count metric of 16. Which routing loop prevention mechanism is in effect?
split horizon
error condition
hold-down timer
* route poisoning
count to infinity
11. What is the purpose of the TTL field in the IP header?
used to mark routes as unreachable in updates sent to other routers
prevents regular update messages from reinstating a route that may have gone bad
prevents a router from advertising a network through the interface from which the update came
* limits the time or hops that a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded
defines a maximum metric value for each distance vector routing protocol by setting a maximum hop count
12. Which of the following can exist in a distance vector network that has not converged? (Choose three.)
* routing loops
* inconsistent traffic forwarding
no traffic forwarding until system converges
* inconsistent routing table entries
routing table updates sent to wrong destinations
13.
Refer to the exhibit. The routers in this network are running RIP. Router A has not received an update from Router B in over three minutes. How will Router A respond?
The Holddown timer will wait to remove the route from the table for 60 seconds.
* The Invalid timer will mark the route as unusable if an update has not been received in 180 seconds.
The Update timer will request an update for routes that were learned from Router B.
The Hello timer will expire after 10 seconds and the route will be flushed out of the routing table.
14. A network administrator is evaluating RIP versus EIGRP for a new network. The network will be sensitive to congestion and must respond quickly to topology changes. What are two good reasons to choose EIGRP instead of RIP in this case? (Choose two.)
EIGRP uses periodic updates.
* EIGRP only updates affected neighbors.
EIGRP uses broadcast updates.
* EIGRP updates are partial.
EIGRP uses the efficient Bellman-Ford algorithm.
15.
Refer to the exhibit. What path will packets from the 192.168.1.0/24 network travel to reach the 10.0.0.0/8 network if RIP is the active routing protocol?
The path will be router A -> router B -> router C -> router E.
* The path will be router A -> router D -> router E.
Router A will load balance between the router A -> router D -> router E and router A -> router B -> router C -> router E paths.
Packets will alternate paths depending on the order they arrive at router A.
16. Which three routing protocols are distance vector routing protocols? (Choose three).
* RIPv1
* EIGRP
OSPF
IS-IS
* RIPv2
17. What is a routing loop?
a packet bouncing back and forth between two loopback interfaces on a router
a condition where a return path from a destination is different from the outbound path forming a “loop”
* a condition where a packet is constantly transmitted within a series of routers without ever reaching its intended destination
the distribution of routes from one routing protocol into another
18. Which two conditions are most likely to cause a routing loop? (Choose two.)
random jitter
implementation of classful addressing
* inconsistent routing tables
* incorrectly configured static routes
a network converging too quickly
19. What metric does the RIP routing protocol consider to be infinity?
0
15
* 16
224
255
20. What does a router running RIP do first with a new route that is received from an advertisement?
places it immediately in the routing table
* adjusts the metric for the new route to show the added distance for the route
advertises this route out all other interfaces except the one that it came in on
sends a ping packet to verify that the path is a feasible route
21.
Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are using RIP, how many rounds of updates will occur before all routers know all networks?
1
2
* 3
4
5
6
1
Refer to the exhibit. The network that is shown is running RIPv1. The 192.168.10.0/24 network was recently added and will only contain end users. What command or set of commands should be entered on Router1 to prevent RIPv1 updates from being sent to the end user devices on the new network while still allowing this new network to be advertised to other routers?
Router1(config-router)# no router rip
Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0
Router1(config-router)# no network 192.168.10.0
* Router1(config-router)# passive-interface fastethernet 0/0
Router1(config-router)# passive-interface serial 0/0/0
2. The following line was displayed in the output of the show ip route command.
R 192.168.3.0/24 [120/3] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:30, Serial0/0
What is the value of the routing metric?
* 3
12
20
30
120
3. Which of the following is considered a limitation of RIP v1?
* RIP v1 does not send subnet mask information in its updates.
RIP v1 is not widely supported by networking hardware vendors.
RIP v1 consumes excessive bandwidth by multicasting routing updates using a Class D address.
RIP v1 requires enhanced router processors and extra RAM to function effectively.
RIP v1 does not support load balancing across equal-cost paths.
RIP v1 authentication is complicated and time-consuming to configure.
4
Refer to the exhibit. The Ethernet interface on Router2 goes down and the administrator notices that the route is still in the Router1 routing table. How much longer will Router1 keep the down network in its routing table before marking it as possibly down?
30 seconds
90 seconds
* 155 seconds
180 seconds
255 seconds
5
Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is running RIPv1. What command was entered into Router1 to configure the gateway of last resort?
no auto-summary
ip default-network 0.0.0.0
ip default-gateway 0.0.0.0
* ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1
6. What are three characteristics of the RIPv1 routing protocol? (Choose three.)
supports the use of VLSM
* uses hop count as a metric
* considers a metric of 16 as infinity
has an administrative distance of 110 by default
includes the destination IP address and subnet mask in routing updates
calculates metrics using the Bellman Ford algorithm
7
Which of the following would be the correct command sequence to enable RIP on Router B for all connected networks?
RouterB# router rip
RouterB(router)# network 210.36.7.0
RouterB(router)# network 220.17.29.0
RouterB(router)# network 211.168.74.0
RouterB(config)# router rip
RouterB(config-router)# network 198.16.4.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 211.168.74.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 199.84.32.0
RouterB(config)# configure router rip
RouterB(config-router)# network 210.36.7.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 199.84.32.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 211.168.74.0
RouterB(config)# router rip
RouterB(config-router)# network 198.16.4.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 210.36.7.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 211.168.74.0
* RouterB(config)# router rip
RouterB(config-router)# network 198.16.4.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 210.36.7.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 220.17.29.0
8. What is the default update period in seconds for the RIP routing protocol?
10
12
15
20
* 30
60
9
Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output of router B?
A static default route has been configured on B.
* The default-information originate command has been entered on A.
All traffic that is destined for 192.168.1.1 will be sent to address 0.0.0.0.
Hosts on the 10.16.1.0/27 network have 192.168.1.1 configured as the default gateway address.
10
Refer to the exhibit. A network consists of multiple routers. What can be verified when the show ip protocols command is issued on one of the routers in the network?
whether all routes in the network have been properly added to the routing table
* routing protocol configuration in use for IP on this router
operational status of routing protocols in use on all routers in the network
routing metric of each network that is listed in the routing table
11
Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured with valid interface addresses in the indicated networks and are running RIPv1. The network is converged. Which routes are present in the routing tables?
All routers have all routes in their routing table.
All routers have all /30 routes, but do not have /24 routes in their routing table.
* All routers have all /30 routes. Routers A and E also have some of the /24 routes in their routing table.
All routers have all /30 routes. Routers B and D also have some of the /24 routes in their routing table.
Routers A and E have all routes. Routers B and D have only /30 routes in their routing table.
Routers A and E have only /24 routes. Routers B and D have only /30 routes in their routing table.
12. Which two statements are true regarding the characteristics of RIPv1? (Choose two).
* It is a distance vector routing protocol.
It advertises the address and subnet mask for routes in routing updates.
The data portion of a RIP message is encapsulated into a TCP segment.
* The data portion of a RIP message is encapsulated into a UDP segment.
It broadcasts updates every 15 seconds.
It allows a maximum of 15 routers in the routing domain.
13. Which command or set of commands will stop the RIP routing process?
RouterB(config)# router rip
RouterB(config-router)# shutdown
RouterB(config)# router rip
RouterB(config-router)# network no 192.168.2.0
* RouterB(config)# no router rip
* RouterB(config)# router no rip
14
Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the exhibit are running RIP v1. The network administrator issues the show ip route command on router A. What routes would appear in the routing table output if the network is converged? (Choose two).
* R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/1]
C 192.168.2.0/24 [120/1]
R 10.10.3.0/24 [120/0]
C 10.10.3.0/24 [120/1]
* R 10.10.1.0/24 [120/2]
R 10.10.1.0/24 [120/3]
15. Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router?
* debug ip rip
show ip route
show ip interface
show ip protocols
debug ip rip config
show ip rip database
16
Refer to the output from the show ip route command. What can be concluded from the output of this router command?
A preferred route to the destination has not been set.
* There are two equal cost paths to network 1.0.0.0.
Both interfaces are being used equally to route traffic.
A variance must be set to load-balance across multiple paths.
17.
Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running the RIPv1 protocol. The network administrator configures the command network 10.1.0.0 on Router1. What network will Router1 advertise to Router2?
10.1.0.0/16
10.1.0.0/8
10.0.0.0/16
* 10.0.0.0/8
18.
Refer to the exhibit.
The Fa0/0 interface on R1 is configured as a passive interface.
The Fa0/0 interfaces on each router is shutdown.
* RIP is configured incorrectly on R1.
Automatic summarization is preventing the routing updates from being forwarded.
The network has not converged and R2 must wait 12 more seconds before receiving a full routing table update from R1.
19. What will happen if an interface IP address is entered for the address portion of the network command in a RIPv1 configuration instead of a network address?
The router will reject the command.
A route to the host address will be added to outgoing RIP updates.
A route to the host address will be added to the routing table.
* All interfaces in the same classful network as the configured address will be included in the RIPv1 routing process.
20.
Refer to the exhibit. All routers that are shown are running the RIP routing protocol. All unknown IP traffic must be forwarded to the ISP. What router or set of routers are recommended to have both a default route and the default-information originate command issued to implement this forwarding policy?
only Router1
* only the gateway router
all routers in the network
only the routers with LANs needing Internet access
1 What two advantages does CIDR provide to a network? (Choose two.)
* reduced routing table size
dynamic address assignment
automatic route redistribution
* reduced routing update traffic
utomatic summarization at classful boundaries
2
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to create a subnet for the point-to-point connection between the two routers. Which subnetwork mask would provide enough addresses for the point-to-point link with the least number of wasted addresses?
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248
* 255.255.255.252
3
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is summarizing the two groups of routes on router R1 shown in the exhibit. Which summarization will work for all the subnets?
192.168.0.0/23
192.168.0.0/22
* 192.168.0.0/21
192.168.0.0/20
4. Which of the following are contained in the routing updates of classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
* 32-bit address
next hop router interface
* subnet mask
unicast host address
Layer 2 address
5. Which of the following problems does VLSM help to alleviate?
* the shortage of IP addresses
the difficulty of assigning static IP addresses to hosts in large enterprises
the complexity of implementing advanced routing protocols such as OSPF and EIGRP
the shortage of network administrators qualified in the use of RIP v1 and IGRP
6. What does VLSM allow a network administrator to do?
utilize one subnet mask throughout an autonomous system
* utilize multiple subnet masks in the same IP address space
utilize IGRP as the routing protocol in an entire autonomous system
utilize multiple routing protocols within an autonomous system
7.
Refer to the exhibit. What subnet mask will be applied if Router A sends a RIPv1 update for the network 172.16.1.0 to Router B?
none
8
16
* 24
8
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to minimize the number of entries in Router1’s routing table. What should the administrator implement on the network?
VLSM
* CIDR
private IP addresses
classful routing
9. A router has a summary route to network 192.168.32.0/20 installed in its routing table. What range of networks are summarized by this route?
192.168.0.0 – 192.168.32.0/24
192.168.0.0 – 192.168.47.0/24
* 192.168.32.0 – 192.168.47.0/24
192.168.32.0 – 192.168.48.0/24
192.168.32.0 – 192.168.63.0/24
10. A network administrator is tasked with dividing up a class C network among the QA, Sales, and Administration departments. The QA department is made up of 10 people, the Sales is made up of 28 people, and the Administration has 6. Which two subnets masks adequately address the QA and Sales departments? (Choose two.)
255.255.255.252 for QA
* 255.255.255.224 for Sales
* 255.255.255.240 for QA
255.255.255.248 for QA
255.255.255.0 for Sales
11.
In the network shown in the graphic, three bits were borrowed from the host portion of a Class C address. How many valid host addresses will be unused on the three point-to-point links combined if VLSM is not used?
3
4
12
36
* 84
180
12. A Class C address has been assigned for use in the network shown in the graphic. Using VLSM, which bit mask should be used to provide for the number of host addresses required on Router A, while wasting the fewest addresses?
/31
/30
/29
/28
* /27
/26
13
An additional subnet is required for a new Ethernet link between Router1 and Router2 as shown in the diagram. Which of the following subnet addresses can be configured in this network to provide a maximum of 14 useable addresses for this link while wasting the fewest addresses?
192.1.1.16/26
192.1.1.96/28
192.1.1.160/28
192.1.1.196/27
* 192.1.1.224/28
192.1.1.240/28
14. Which three interior routing protocols support VLSM? (Choose three.)
* OSPF
RIP v1
* RIP v2
* EIGRP
BGP
STP
15.
Refer to the exhibit. The number of required host addresses for each subnet in a network is listed in the exhibit. This number includes the host address requirements for all router ports and hosts on that subnet. After all device and router port address assignments are determined, what will be the total number of unused host addresses available?
6
14
* 29
34
40
62
16
Refer to the exhibit. In the network that is shown, the router interfaces are assigned the first address in each subnet. Which IP address would be usable for a host on one of the LANs in this network?
192.168.1.5/30
192.168.2.17/28
192.168.2.63/27
* 192.168.2.130/25
17
Refer to the exhibit. Which address is a broadcast address for one of the subnets that are shown in the exhibit?
192.168.4.3/29
* 192.168.4.15/29
192.168.4.65/26
192.168.4.255/24
18
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to create two subnetworks from 10.0.0.0/8 for a router running RIPv2. The Admin subnet requires 120 hosts and the Sales subnet requires 58 hosts. The network administrator assigned 10.0.1.128/25 to the Admin subnet. The Sales subnet is given 10.0.1.192/26. What will be the result of this addressing scheme?
Because RIPv2 does not support VLSM, the subnet masks will not be allowed.
The subnets will not have enough host addresses for the given network requirements.
* The subnets overlap and will be rejected by the router.
The router will support the addressing scheme.
19
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician enters the static route in R1 needed to reach network 10.1.1.0/24. A ping from the S0/0/0 interface on R1 to host B fails. The technician begins testing the network and has the following results:
1. pings from R1 to the S0/0/0 interface on R2….successful
2. pings from R1 to the Fa0/0 interface on R2….successful
3. pings from host B to hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 network….successful
4. pings from host B to the Fa0/0 interface on R2….successful
5. pings from R2 to host B….successful.
What is the likely cause of the failure of the ping from R1 to host B?
* The default gateway on host B is not correctly set.
There are no routes back to networks connected to R1 from R2.
There is a Layer 2 problem between R2 and host B.
Host B has a defective Ethernet card.
20. What is a supernet?
the network for a default route
* a summarization of classful addresses
a network that contains both private and public addresses
a set of discontiguous networks that are controlled by an ISP
1.
Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are running RIP version 2, why is there no route for the 192.168.1.32/27 network?
Rip version 2 does not send subnet masks in its updates.
Router A is not setup with RIP as a routing protocol.
* Rip version 2 will auto summarize routes by default.
Router B is not setup to advertise the 192.168.1.64/30 network.
2.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
* Router1 will install a route to 192.168.0.0/20
Router1 will install a route to 192.168.0.0/24
Router1 will install a route to 192.168.16.0/24
Router2 will install a route to 192.168.16.0/24
* Router2 will not install a route to 192.168.16.0/20
3.
Refer to the exhibit. Which command on which router will allow Router1 to learn about the 192.168.0.0/20 network?
Router1(config)# ip classless
Router1(config-router)# no passive-interface serial 0/1/1
* Router2(config-router)# version 2
Router2(config-router)# neighbor 10.0.0.2
4. What are two reasons to implement RIP version 2 rather than RIP version 1? (Choose two.)
* RIP version 2 supports VLSM.
RIP version 2 supports more than 16 routers.
RIP version 2 supports classful (and not classless) routing
* RIP version 2 supports routing update authentication.
RIP version 2 supports multi-areas.
RIP version 2 uses the Dijkstra algorithm rather than the Bellman-Ford algorithm.
5. How are RIP v1 and RIP v2 similar to one another? (Choose three.)
* They both use hop count as a metric.
* They both have the same metric value for infinite distance.
They both broadcast their updates to their neighbors.
They both send subnet mask information in their updates.
They both provide for authentication of update sources.
* They both use split horizon to prevent routing loops.
6.
Refer to the exhibit. Routers East and West are configured using RIPv1. Both routers are sending updates about their directly connected routes. The East router can ping the West router serial interface and West can ping the serial interface of East. However, neither router has dynamically learned routes from the other. What is most likely the problem?
A gateway of last resort is required.
Subnetting is not supported by RIPv1.
* VLSM is not supported by RIPv1.
One of the routers needs a clock rate on the serial interface.
7.
Refer to the exhibit. Which command will allow Router2 to learn about the 192.168.16.0/28 network?
Router1(config)# ip classless
* Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0
Router1(config-router)# no passive-interface serial 0/1/1
Router2(config-router)# version 2
Router2(config-router)# neighbor 10.0.0.2
8.
Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIP version 2. JAX is configured to just advertise the 10.0.0.0/24 network. CHI is configured to advertise the 172.16.0.0/16 network. A network administrator enters the commands shown in the exhibit. What changes will occur in this network?
The JAX router will ignore updates for the 172.16.0.0/16 network due to split horizon issues.
* The CHI router will install a route to the 192.168.0.0/16 network in its routing table.
The routing table for CHI will have the 192.168.0.0/16 route but it will have an S next to the route.
The ORL router will apply a 255.255.0.0 subnet mask to all networks in the routing updates it forwards.
9.
Refer to the exhibit. A technician needs to add a new loopback interface to test routing functionality and network design. The technician enters the following set of commands on the router:
Why does the router respond with an error?
The router does not allow loopback interface configurations.
This mask can not be used with this class of addresses.
Classless routing must be configured before this address can be added.
* The network address for Loopback1 overlaps with an already configured interface address.
The router is over the limit for the maximum paths that can be provided in the routing table.
10. What is the maximum network diameter permitted by the default metric of RIPv2?
15 hops
16 hops
100 hops
120 hops
255 hops
11. What are two functions of the network command used when configuring routing protocols? (Choose two.)
* identifies which networks will be included in the routing updates
identifies the hosts addresses that can be summarized in the network
used to list all addresses for remote and local networks
determines which subnet mask to apply to routing updates
* determines which interfaces can send and receive routing updates
12.
Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output shown in the exhibit?
The routing table is limited to 2 routes.
The LAN interfaces are participating in the routing process.
One update has been sent out of each serial interface and 2 have been received.
* The no auto-summary has not been configured on this router.
13. A network administrator has been told that the company IP address infrastructure must adhere to RFC 1918. What three IP address ranges from RFC 1918 could the administrator use on the network? (Choose three.)
* 10.0.0.0/8
127.0.0.0/8
169.254.0.0/16
* 172.16.0.0/12
* 192.168.0.0/16
209.165.201.0/27
14.
Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. What changes will occur in the routing table of router B if a loopback interface with an address of 10.16.1.129/27 is configured on router B?
Routes to the 10.16.1.0/27, 10.16.1.64/27, and 10.16.1.128/27 networks are added.
* A connected route to the 10.16.1.128/27 network is added.
A third route to the 10.0.0.0/8 network with RIPv1 as the source is added.
The 10.0.0.0/8 route is dropped immediately from the routing table after router B is configured.
15. A network administrator installed four new routers that are running RIPv2. Router1 is a boundary router in the RIPv2 network and has a default route configured. Once the network has converged, the network administrator enters Router1(config-router)# defaultinformation originate on Router1. How will this affect the network?
prevents Router1 from forwarding updates about networks that are not directly connected
causes all routers in the network to synchronize routing updates with Router1
forces Router1 to become the primary or designated router (DR) for updates
* propagates the default route to all routers in the network
16.
Refer to the exhibit. The exhibited network contains a mixture of Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The command debug ip rip was entered on the JAX router. All routers are running the same version of RIP. Router CHI and Router ORL are not able to reach the 192.168.1.16/28 network. What is a possible solution to this problem?
Enable split horizon in the network.
* Configure RIPv2 on routers.
Add network 192.168.1.0 to the RIP configuration on the JAX router.
Configure JAX Fa0/0 as a passive interface.
Enable the Serial0/0/0 interface on the JAX router.
Change the IP address on the Fa0/0 interface of the JAX router to 192.168.1.1/24.
17. What field was added to the RIP message header by RFC 1723 to add support for VLSM and CIDR?
* subnet mask
destination port number
address family identifier
source and destination IP addresses
18.
Refer to the exhibit. What effect will the commands that are shown have on RIP updates for Router1?
Only version 2 updates are sent to 255.255.255.255.
* Only version 2 updates are sent to 224.0.0.9.
Both version 1 and version 2 updates are sent to 224.0.0.9.
Both version 1 and version 2 updates are sent to 255.255.255.255.
19.
Refer to the exhibit. RIPv1 is configured as the routing protocol for the network that is shown. The following commands are used on each router:
router rip
network 10.0.0.0
network 172.16.0.0
When this configuration is complete, users on the LAN of each router are unable to access the remote LANs. Why?
The network statements are configured incorrectly.
A routing loop has been created.
* RIPv1 is unable to route to discontiguous subnets of a major network.
RIPv1 is unable to route networks with a /24 subnet mask.
20. RIPv2 is the configured routing protocol on the routers in a network. The command Router(config-router)# no version 2 is entered on the routers. What effect does entering this command have on routing updates?
Subnet masks will be added to the routing updates.
Routing updates will be sent out using multicast address 224.0.0.9.
* Version 1 and 2 updates will be received and the version 2 updates will not be sent.
The RIP routing process will be removed from the router and routing updates will not be forwarded.
1.
Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from this output?
The router will have to perform recursive lookups to forward a packet destined for 192.168.2.213/24.
The parent route for these networks was removed from the routing table.
A route to 192.168.0.0/25 would be classified as a supernet route for the routes listed in the routing table.
* All of the routes listed are network routes.
2.
Refer to the exhibit. A packet destined for host 128.107.0.5/16 is processed by the JAX router. After finding the static route in the routing table that matches the destination network for this packet, what does the router do next?
searches for a default route to forward the packet
drops the packet since the static route does not have an exit interface
* performs a recursive lookup to find the exit interface used to forward the packet
sends a request to neighboring routers for the location of the 128.107.0.0 network
3.
Refer to the exhibit. What parent network will automatically be included in the routing table when the three subnets are configured on Router1?
* 172.16.0.0/16
172.16.0.0/24
172.16.0.0/30
172.16.1.0/16
172.16.1.0/24
4. The following entry is displayed in the routing table:
R 192.168.8.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.4.1, 00:00:26, Serial0/0/1
What type of route is this?
a level 1 parent route
a level 1 supernet route
* a level 1 ultimate network route
a level 2 child route
a level 2 ultimate child route
5.
Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is running IOS version 12.2. What will the network administrator need to do so that packets for unknown child routes of 172.16.0.0/24 will not be dropped?
Issue the ip default-network command
use a classful routing protocol such as RIPv1
enable either OSPF or ISIS as the routing protocol
issue the ip classless command
* do nothing, ip classless is on by default
6.
Refer to the exhibit. Router B receives a packet with a destination address of 10.16.1.97. What will router B do?
drop the packet
forward the packet via the route to 10.16.1.0
forward the packet via the route to 10.16.1.64
* use the default route
7.
Refer to the exhibit. How many routes in this output qualify for use as ultimate routes?
3
4
5
* 7
8
8.
Refer to the exhibit. With the ip classless command issued, what will router R2 do with a packet destined for host 172.16.4.234?
drop the packet
* send packet out Serial 0/0/1
send packet to network 0.0.0.0
send packet out FastEthernet 0/0
9.
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes this network?
EIGRP is being used
* There is at least one parent and one child route
192.168.2.0, 192.168.3.0, and 192.168.4.0 networks are child routes
Traffic going to 172.16.3.0 will be directed to s 0/0/1
10.
Refer to the exhibit. Router1 has been issued the ip classless command. What happens to packets destined to host 172.16.3.10?
they are dropped
sent to default gateway
* forward out interface Serial0/0/1
forward out interface FastEthernet 0/0
11.
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has discovered that packets destined for servers on the 172.16.254.0 network are being ropped by Router2. What command should the administrator issue to ensure that these packets are sent out the gateway of last resort, Serial 0/0/1?
* ip classless
no ip classless
ip default-network 0.0.0.0
ip default-gateway 172.16.254.1
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 Serial 0/0/1
12. A router has the following entries in its routing table:
S 192.168.0.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.128.2
O 192.168.0.0/25 [110/2175] via 172.16.1.1, 00:02:15, FastEthernet0/1
D 192.168.0.0/25 [90/22455] via 172.16.2.2, 00:12:15, Serial0/0/0
R 192.168.0.0/26 [120/2] via 172.16.3.3, 00:00:15, Serial0/0/1
The router receives a packet that is destined for a host with the address 192.168.0.58. Which route would this router use to forward the packet?
* the static route
the OSPF route
the EIGRP route
the RIP route
13. What determines if the router implements a classless route lookup process?
Child routes are present in the routing table.
A classless routing protocol has been configured on the router.
The command ip classless is enabled on the router.
Multiple routes with different masks to the same destination are in the routing table.
Routing table entries have a next-hop IP address and an exit interface for each child route.
14. What occurs when no ip classless is implemented on the router?
The router will only support classful IP addressing.
The router will only support classful routing protocols.
The router will use a default route, if present, when a matching route is not found in the routing table.
* The router will assume it has knowledge of all subnets in the network and will not search beyond child routes for a better match.
15.
Refer to the exhibit. The graphic contains partial contents of the routing table on router E. Router E is running version 12.3 of the IOS and is configured for default routing behavior. Router E receives a packet to forward. Which route in the routing table will be searched first and why?
172.16.1.0/25 because it is the first ultimate route
0.0.0.0/0 because it is the lowest network number
* 172.16.0.0/25 because it is the first level 1 route
172.18.0.0/15 because it has the shortest mask
16. A network is converged and the routing tables are complete. When a packet needs to be forwarded, what is the first criterion used to determine the best path in the routing table?
* the route with the smallest AD
the route with the longest address and mask match to the destination
the route with the highest bandwidth
the route with the best combination of AD and lowest cost
17.
Refer to the exhibit. What subnet mask will Router1 apply to child routes of the 172.16.0.0/24 network?
0.0.0.0
255.255.0.0
* 255.255.255.0
255.255.255.255
18.
Refer to the exhibit. What protocol was used to distribute the routing information for the network 172.16.1.4?
RIPv1
* RIPv2
EIGRP
OSPF
19. A route to a destination network is learned from multiple routing protocols. What is used by a Cisco router to select the preferred route to the destination that will be installed in the routing table?
metric
route prefix
update timer
* administrative distance
1. On a router running EIGRP, what database would maintain a list of feasible successors?
routing table
*neighbor table
topology table
adjacency table
2. Refer to the exhibit. This is the debug output from 2 directly connected EIGRP routers. They are not forming an adjacency. What is the cause?
*one router is a non-cisco router
they have different autonomous-system numbers
they are using difference sequence numbers
they are sending incorrect hello types
3. Refer to the exhibit. Which command will advertise the 192.168.1.64/30 network but not the 192.168.1.32 network on router A?
network 192.168.1.0
network 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0
network 192.168.1.64 0.0.0.3
*network 192.168.1.64 0.0.0.7
network 192.168.1.64 0.0.0.255
4. What two actions will the EIGRP DUAL FSM take if a link to a network goes down? (Choose two.)
*put the route into passive mode
query neighbors for a new route
search routing table for a feasible successor
*run the SPF algorithm to find a new successor
search topology table for a feasible successor
5. Refer to the exhibit. What is indicated by the P at the beginning of the topology entry?
the route is in a stable state
the route is a preferred route
*DUAL is searching for a better route to this destination
the exit interface is in passive mode and EIGRP advertisements are blocked
6. In which of the following tables does the EIGRP DUAL algorithm store the primary route to a destination? (Choose two.)
routing
topology
*neighbor
path
*shortest path
7. What information is maintained in the EIGRP topology database for a destination route? (Choose three.)
the routing protocol
the feasible distance of the route
*the highest cost of the route
*the SRTT value for the route
the route cost as advertised by the neighboring router
*the physical address of the gateway interface
8. Which of the following statements describes the bounded updates used by EIGRP?
Bounded updates are sent to all routers within an autonomous system.
Partial updates are sent only to routers that need the information.
*The updates are sent to all routers in the routing table.
Updates are bounded by the routers in the topology table.
9. Which of the following types of routes will be denoted by EX in EIGRP routing table entries? (Choose two.)
routes learned from other routing protocols
routes learned from any non-adjacent EIGRP routers
*any route with a hop count metric higher than 224
EIGRP routes that originate in different autonomous systems
*all passive routes in the routing table
10. Host 192.168.1.66 in the network illustrated is unable to ping host 192.168.1.130. How must EIGRP be configured to enable connectivity between the two hosts? (Choose two.)
*R1(config-router)# network 192.168.1.128
R1(config-router)# auto-summary
R1(config-router)# no auto-summary
R2(config-router)# no auto-summary
R2(config-router)# auto-summary
*R2(config-router)# network 192.168.1.64
11. Which two statements describe characteristics of EIGRP? (Choose two.)
EIGRP is a distance vector routing protocol.
EIGRP supports classless routing and VLSM.
*EIGRP is classified as a link-state routing protocol.
EIGRP uses TCP for reliable delivery of EIGRP update packets.
*With EIGRP, loop-free paths are achieved through the use of hold-down timers.
EIGRP sends a periodic update every 30 minutes.
12. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output of show ip eigrp neighbors, what are two possible problems with adjacencies between Router1 and Router2? (Choose two.)
The routers are configured with different EIGRP process IDs.
*Automatic summarization was disabled.
The hello timer for R1 was altered.
The serial interfaces for both routers are in different networks.
*No feasible successors were found.
13. Refer to the exhibit. In the topology table, what do the numbers 3011840 and 3128695 represent?
the route metric that is applied to those EIGRP routes for this router
the trustworthiness of the routing information source
*the composite of the hop count and bandwidth to that destination network
the total metric for that network as advertised by the EIGRP neighbor
14. Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP is the only routing protocol enabled on this network. No static routes are configured on this router. What can be concluded about network 198.18.1.0/24 from the exhibited output?
A route to network 198.18.1.0/24 is not listed in the routing table.
Packets that are destined for 198.18.1.0/24 will be forwarded to 198.18.10.6.
*EIGRP will perform equal cost load balancing across two paths when forwarding packets to 198.18.1.0/24.
The router with interface 172.16.3.2 is a successor for network 198.18.1.0/24.
15. Refer to the exhibit. All interfaces have been configured with the bandwidths that are shown in the exhibit. Assuming that all routers are using a default configuration of EIGRP as their routing protocol, what path will packets take from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network?
A,B,E
A,C,E
*A,D,E
Packets will load balance across the A,B,E and A,C,E paths.
Packets will load balance across the A,B,E and A,D,E paths.
Packets will load balance across the A,C,E and A,D,E paths.
16. By default, which two metrics are used by EIGRP to determine the best path between networks?
*MTU
load
delay
bandwidth
*reliability
17. Which term defines a collection of networks under the administrative control of a single entity that presents a common routing policy to the Internet?
autonomous system
contiguous networks
process ID
*BGP
18. Refer to the exhibit. The company is using EIGRP with an autonomous system number of 10.
IP classless is enabled and is causing the packet to drop.
*The command network 192.168.1.32 was not issued on router C.
The routers are not configured in the same EIGRP routing domain.
Automatic summarization of the networks is causing the subnetted routes to be dropped.
19. In the command router eigrp 20, what is the purpose of the number 20?
specifies the administrative distance for all EIGRP routes
identifies the autonomous system number this EIGRP process will advertise
*determines what metric is added to all advertised routes
indicates the number of addresses in the EIGRP routing domain
20. The show ip eigrp topology command output on a router displays a successor route and a feasible successor route to network 192.168.1.0/24. In order to reduce processor utilization, what does EIGRP do when the primary route to this network fails?
The router sends query packets to all EIGRP neighbors for a better route to network 192.168
The DUAL FSM immediately recomputes the algorithm to calculate the next backup route.
*Packets that are destined for network 192.168.1.0/24 are sent out the default gateway instead.
The backup route to network 192.168.1.0/24 is installed in the routing table.
21. What administrative distance would a router assign to a default route in EIGRP that is learned from a source external to the autonomous system?
1
5
70
*90
170
190
22. Refer to the exhibit. Network 192.168.0.0/28 goes down. What type of packet does Router2 immediately send to Router1 and Router3?
a query for network 192.168.0.0/28
an acknowledgment packet to 224.0.0.9
an update packet that is sent to 255.255.255.255
a packet that contains the new routing table for R2
unicast update packets to 192.168.1.1 and 192.168.2.1
1. Refer to the exhibit. When Router D is configured to use a link-state routing protocol and is added to the network, what is the first thing that it does to begin learning the network topology?
It sends LSP packets to Routers B and C.
It sends LSP packets to all routers in the network.
*It sends Hello packets to all routers in the network.
It sends information about its directly connected neighbors to Routers A and E.
It sends information about its directly connected neighbors to all routers in the network.
It learns about its directly connected networks when its interfaces reach the up state.
2. What two events will cause a link state router to send LSPs to all neighbors? (Choose two.)
*30 second timer expires
whenever the network topology changes
*immediately after the Bellman-Ford algorithm has run
immediately after the DUAL FSM has built the topology database
upon initial startup of router or routing protocol
3. What is the final step in the link state routing process?
successors are placed into the routing table
SPF computes best path to each destination network
*LSPs are flooded to all neighbors to converge the network
DUAL algorithm is run to find best path to destination networks
4. What two statements correctly describe the link state routing process? (Choose two.)
each router in the area floods LSPs to all neighbors
all routers in the area have identical link state databases
LSPs use the reserved multicast address of 224.0.0.10 to reach neighbors
*routing loops are prevented by running the Diffusing Update Algorithm (DUAL)
*Reliable Transport Protocol (RTP) is the protocol used by for the delivery and reception of LSPs
5. Refer to the exhibit. What kind of information would be seen in an LSP sent from router JAX to router ATL?
hop count
*uptime of the route
cost of the link
a list of all the routing protocols in use
6. What feature do modern link-state protocols provide to minimize processing and memory requirements?
splitting routing topologies into smaller areas
assigning lower process priorities to route calculations
*using update timers to restrict routing updates
strict split horizon rules to reduce routing table entries
7. To achieve network convergence, what three steps does each link state router take? (Choose three.)
*use automatic summarization to reduce the size of routing tables
build a Link State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each directly connected link
flood the LSP to all neighbors, who then store all LSPs received in a database
*discover neighbors and establish adjacencies using the hello packet sent at regular intervals
construct a complete map of the topology and compute the best path to each destination network
*use the DUAL FSM to select efficient, loop-free paths, and insert routes into the routing table
8. What speeds up convergence in a network using link-state routing?
updates triggered by network changes
updates sent at regular intervals
*updates sent only to directly connected neighbors
updates that include complete routing tables
9. Why is it difficult for routing loops to occur in networks that use link-state routing?
Each router builds a simple view of the network based on hop count.
*Routers flood the network with LSAs to discover routing loops.
Each router builds a complete and synchronized view of the network.
Routers use hold-down timers to prevent routing loops.
10. What are some of the advantages of using a link-state routing protocol instead of a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)
The topology database eliminates the need for a routing table.
*Frequent periodic updates are sent to minimize the number of incorrect routes in the topological database.
Routers have direct knowledge of all links in the network and how they are connected.
After the inital LSA flooding, they generally require less bandwidth to communicate changes in a topology.
*Link-state protocols require less router processor power than distance vector protocols.
11. Which algorithm is run by link-state routing protocols to calculate the shortest path to destination networks?
DUAL
Dijkstra
*Bellman-Ford
Diffie-Hellman
12. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes the path traffic would take from the 10.0.0.0/24 network to the 192.168.1.0/24 network if a link-state routing protocol was in use?
*BOS -> ATL because this path is the least hops
BOS -> ATL because this path is highest cost
BOS -> ORL -> JAX -> ATL because this path is the lowest cost
traffic would load balance across all links
13. Which database or table must be identical on all link-state routers within an area in order to construct an accurate SPF tree?
routing table
*adjacency table
link-state database
neighbor table
topology database
14. Which two routing protocols use Dijkstra’s shortest path first algorithm? (Choose two.)
RIPv1
*RIPv2
IS-IS
BGP
*EIGRP
OSPF
15. When are link-state packets sent to neighbors?
every 30 seconds
every 180 seconds
*after the holddown time expires
when a link goes up or down
when a routing loop occurs
16. Refer to the exhibit. What does JAX do with link-state packets from ORL?
sends out its updated routing table to both ORL and BOS routers
sends out the individual link-state packets out the interface connected to BOS
*queries BOS to see if it has a better route
only adds it to the local routing table and performs no other actions
17. A new network administrator is given the task of selecting an appropriate dynamic routing protocol for a software development company. The company has over 100 routers, uses CIDR and VLSM, requires fast convergence, and uses both Cisco and non-Cisco equipment. Which routing protocol is appropriate for this company?
RIP version 2
*IGRP
EIGRP
OSPF
BGP
18. What action does a link-state router take immediately upon receipt of an LSP from a neighboring router?
floods the LSP to neighbors
calculates the SPF algorithm
*runs the Bellman-Ford algorithm
computes the best path to the destination network
19. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers and interfaces are configured to use a link-state routing protocol, from which routers will router D receive hello packets?
A and E
B and C
*A, B, C, and E
C only
1. Refer to the exhibit. What does the “O*E2″ from the “O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.1.1, 00:05:34, Serial0/0″ line represent?
an internal type 2 OSPF route.
an external OSPF route at least two hops away.
an external OSPF route from two different sources.
an external OSPF route that will not increment in cost.
*a default route.
The route was distributed into OSPF from a type 2 router.
2. Refer to the exhibit. What is the cost of the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?
2
110
1786
*1.544
3. What three parameters must be indentical between OSPF routers in order to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)
area id
*K-values
*metric value
hello interval
network type
*interface type
4. What does OSPF use to reduce the number of exchanges of routing information in networks where large numbers of neighbors are present? (Choose two.)
root router
*backup root router
*domain router
backup domain router
designated router
backup designated router
5. What does OSPF use to calculate the cost to a destination network?
bandwidth
*bandwidth and hop count
bandwidth and reliability
bandwidth, load, and reliablity
6. A fully converged five router OSPF network has been running successfully for several weeks. All configurations have been saved and no static routes are used. If one router looses power and reboots, what information will be in its routing table after the configuration file is loaded but before OSPF has converged?
All routes for the entire network will be present.
Routes for connected networks that are operational will be in the routing table.
*Because the SPF algorithm has not completed all calculations, no routes will be in the table.
A summary route for all previously learned routes will automatically appear in the routing table until all LSPs have been received by the router.
7. Refer to the exhibit. Router A is correctly configured for OSPF. Which OSPF configuration statement or set of statements was entered for router B to generate the exhibited routing table?
B(config-router)# network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
B(config-router)# network 10.16.1.0 0.0.0.224 area 0
*B(config-router)# network 10.16.1.0 255.255.255.224 area 0
B(config-router)# network 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.255 area 0
B(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0
8. Refer to the exhibit. Which network command or set of sommands will cause OSPF to be enabled to send and receive packets for any R1 interface in the exhibited subnets?
R1(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0
*R1(config-router)# network 10.1.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
*R1(config-router)# network 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 0
9. Refer to the exhibit. What does the “2″ stand for in the router ospf 2 statement?
The number 2 is the autonomous system number.
The number 2 indicates the number of networks advertised by OSPF.
The number 2 identifies this particular instance of OSPF on this router.
*The number 2 indicates the priority of the OSPF process on this router.
10. Refer to the exhibit. All routers have been configured with the interface priorities that are shown. All routers were restarted simultaneously. The results of the DR/BDR election are shown. What can be concluded about this network?
Router C cannot win a DR election under any circumstances.
If the link for interface 192.168.1.4 goes down, router B will become the new DR.
The highest router ID was most likely determined via an OSPF router-id statement or statements.
*If a new router is added with a higher router ID than router D, it will become the DR.
11. Refer to the exhibit. What configuration statements would give the results that are shown in the output of the show ip protocols command?
B(config)# int fa0/0
B(config-if)# router-id 192.168.1.5
*B(config)# int lo0
*B(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.5
B(config)# router ospf 1
B(config-router)# router-id 192.168.1.5
B (config)# router ospf 1
B(config-router)# ip address 192.168.1.5
12. Refer to the exhibit. How many OSPF adjacencies must be formed to build the complete topology if a DR or BDR were not elected in this OSPF network?
4
5
6
* 7
10
13. What is the default administrative distance for OSPF?
90
100
110
*115
120
14. Refer to the exhibit. Routers A, B, C, and D are all running OSPF with default router IDs and OSPF interface priorities. Loopback interfaces are not configured and all interfaces are operational. Router D is the DR and router C is the BDR.
What happens immediately after the following commands are entered on router A?
A(config)# interface fa0/0
A(config-if)# ip ospf priority 255
A will become the DR. D will become the BDR.
*A will become the DR. C will remain the BDR.
D will remain the DR. A will become the BDR.
D will remain the DR. C will remain the BDR.
15. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running OSPF. What cost would JAX put in its routing table for the 10.0.0.0/24 network?
2
156
* 1564
1785
1787
16. What range of networks will be advertised in the OSPF updates by the command Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 100?
192.168.0.0/24 through 192.168.0.15/24
192.168.0.0/24 through 192.168.15.0/24
*192.168.15.0/24 through 192.168.31.0/24
192.168.15.0/24 through 192.168.255.0/24
192.168.16.0/24 through 192.168.255.0/24
17. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to set the router ID of Router1 to 192.168.100.1. What steps must the administrator take to accomplish this?
shut down the loop back interface
*use the OSPF router-id 192.168.100.1 command
use the clear ip ospf process command
nothing, the router-id of Router1 is already 192.168.100.1
18. Refer to the exhibit. When OSPF is operational in the exhibited network, what neighbor relationship is developed between Router1 and Router2?
A FULL adjacency is formed.
A 2WAY adjacency is formed.
*Router2 will become the DR and Router1 will become the BDR.
Both routers will become DROTHERS.
19. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routers have default interface OSPF priorities and no configured loopback interfaces, what two roles will router B play on each network segment? (Choose two.)
DR for network 192.168.1.200
*BDR for network 192.168.1.200
DROTHER on 192.168.1.200
*DR for network 192.168.1.204
BDR for network 192.168.1.204
DROTHER on network 192.168.1.204
20. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running OSPF. The show ip ospf neighbor command reveals no neighbors. What is a possible cause?
OSPF autonomous system IDs do not match.
*OSPF process IDs do not match.
OSPF network types are identical.
OSPF hello or dead timers do not match.
21. Refer to the exhibit. Which command sequence on RouterB will redistribute a gateway of last resort to the other routers in OSPF area 0?
RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# gateway-of-last-resort 172.16.6.6
RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0/0
RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# default-information originate
*RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
*RouterB(config-router)# default-network 172.16.6.6 0.0.0.3 area 0
RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
RouterB(config)# ip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# redistribute ip default-route
22. Refer to the exhibit. RouterA, RouterB, and RouterC in the diagram are running OSPF on their Ethernet interfaces. Router D was just added to the network. Routers are configured with the loopback interfaces (Lo 0) that are shown in the exhibit. What happens to the OSPF DR/BDR after RouterD is added to the network?
RouterB takes over as DR and RouterD becomes the BDR.
RouterD becomes the BDR and RouterA remains the DR.
*RouterD becomes the DR and RouterA becomes the BDR.
RouterC acts as the DR until the election process is complete.
RouterD becomes the DR and RouterB remains the BDR.
There is no change in the DR or BDR until either current DR or BDR goes down.
23. Which two statements describe the use of OSPF DR/BDR elections? (Choose two.)
Elections are always optional.
*Elections are required in all WAN networks.
*Elections are required in point-to-point networks.
Elections are required in broadcast multiaccess networks.
Elections are required in non-broadcast multiaccess networks.
24. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are using default OSPF configuration settings to advertise all attached networks. If all of the routers start at the same time, what will be the result of the DR and BDR elections for this single area OSPF network? (Choose three.)
*HQ will be DR for 10.4.0.0/16.
Router A will be DR for 10.4.0.0/16.
HQ will be BDR for 10.4.0.0/16.
*Router A will be DR for 10.5.0.0/16.
Remote will be DR for 10.5.0.0/16.
*Remote will be BDR for 10.5.0.0/16.
25. Refer to the exhibit. What must be received between neighbors to prevent the dead time that is shown in the exhibit from reaching zero?
any traffic through the router interfaces
*routing database updates
hello packets
BPDU packets
1. Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
* They do not work well in networks that require special heirarchical designs.
They are aware of the complete network topology.
* They pass their entire routing tables to their directly connected neighbors only.
They offer rapid convergence times in large networks.
They rely on decreasing hop counts to determine the best path.
They do not include subnet masks in their routing updates.
2. Which three statements about routing protocols are true? (Choose three.)
OSPF elects designated routers on multiaccess links.
* RIP does not support classless routing.
EIGRP supports unequal cost load balancing.
* EIGRP uses broadcast traffic to establish adjacencies with its neighbors.
RIP does not advertise a route beyond a hop count of 15.
* OSPF can convergence more quickly because it can find a feasible successor in its topology table when a successor route goes down.
3. What does RIP use to reduce convergence time in a larger network?
It reduces the update timer to 15 seconds if there are more then 10 routes.
It uses triggered updates to announce network changes if they happen in between the periodic updates.
* It uses random pings to detect if a pathway is down and therefore is preemptive on finding networks that are down.
It uses multicast instead of broadcast to send routing updates.
4. What can be determined from the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
* All of the routers are connected to
* Layer 3 connectivity is operational for all of the devices listed in the Device ID column.
An administrator consoled into the Waldorf router can ping the Brant router.
Brant, Fisherman, and Potomac are directly connected to
5. Refer to the exhibit. The results of the show ip route command are displayed in the graphic for Router R2. Which route will be selected for a packet with a destination address of 10.1.4.1?
static route to 10.1.0.0/22
* RIP route to 10.1.0.0/23
RIP route to 10.1.0.0/24
0.0.0.0/0 via 192.168.0.1
6. Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational. If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will be included in the show ip route command output for router A?
All of the 192.168.x.0 networks will be in the routing table.
Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the routing table.
* The routing table will be empty because routes and dynamic routes have not been configured.
A default route is automatically installed in the routing table to allow connectivity between the networks.
7. Which of the following should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose three.)
OSPF interval timers mismatch
* gateway of last resort not redistributed
interface network type mismatch
* no loopback interface configured
* administrative distance mismatch
inconsistent authentication configuration
8. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to figure out why BOS does not have the 10.0.0.0/24 network in its routing table. All routers are configured for OSPF in area 0. The links between the routers are operational and the administrator is able to ping between all router interfaces. What is a logical next step that the network administrator should take to troubleshoot the problem?
Reboot the routers.
Change the OSPF process ID on all of the routers to 0.
* Check to see if the cable is loose between BOS and JAX.
Check to see if CDP packets are passing between the routers.
Use show and debug commands to determine if hellos are propagating.
9. Refer to the exhibit. What two statements are true based on the output shown? (Choose two.)
the reported distance to network 172.16.1.0 is 2172416
* 192.168.10.5 and 192.168.10.9 are feasible successors
neighbors 192.168.10.9 and 192.168.10.5 have auto summary disabled
router 3 is load balancing traffic to the 172.16.3.0 network across its serial interfaces
* all interfaces shown on Router3 are in the passive state and will not send EIGRP advertisements
10. The network shown in the diagram is having problems routing traffic. It is suspected that the problem is with the addressing scheme. What is the problem with the addressing used in the topology?
* The address assigned to the Ethernet0 interface of Router1 is a broadcast address for that subnetwork.
The subnetwork configured on the serial link between Router1 and Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.
The subnetwork assigned to the Serial0 interface of Router1 is on a different subnetwork from the address for Serial0 of Router2.
The subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.
11. What is the function of the OSPF LSU packet?
used to confirm receipt of certain types of OSPF packets
* used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers
used to request more information about any entry in the BDR
used to announce new OSPF information and to reply to certain types of requests
12. Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)
packet switching
* microsegmentation
domain name resolution
path selection
* flow control
13. Refer to the exhibit. What summary address can Router2 advertise to Router1 to reach the three networks on Routers 3, 4, and 5 without advertising any public address space or overlapping the networks on Router1?
* 172.16.0.0/8
172.16.0.0/10
172.16.0.0/13
172.16.0.0/20
172.16.0.0/24
14. What is the first step OSPF and IS-IS routers take in building a shortest path first database?
learn about directly connected networks
send hello to discover neighbors and form adjacencies
* choose successors and feasible successors to populate the topology table
flood LSPs to all neighbors informing them of all known networks and their link states
15. Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose three.)
As new neighbors are discovered, entries are placed in a neighbor table.
* If the feasible successor has a higher advertised cost than the current successor route, then it becomes the primary route.
If hello packets are not received within the hold time, DUAL must recalculate the topology.
The reported distance is the distance to a destination as advertised by a neighbor.
EIGRP maintains full knowledge of the network topology in the topology table and exchanges full routing information with neighboring routers in every update.
EIGRP builds one routing table that contains routes for all configured routed protocols.
16. A network administrator has configured a default route on Router_A but it is not being shared with adjacent Router_B and the other routers in the OSPF area. Which command will save the administrator the time and trouble of configuring this default route on Router_B and all of the other routers in the OSPF area?
Router_A(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
* Router_B(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
Router_A(config-router)# default-information originate
Router_B(config-router)# default-information originate
Router_A(config-router)# ip ospf update-default
Router_B(config-router)# ip ospf update-default
17. Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing process configuration? (Choose three.)
network address
* loopback address
* autonomous system number
* subnet mask
wildcard mask
area ID
18. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?
A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
* B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.48
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.64
A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# no network 192.168.25.32
B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
A(config)# no router rip
19. Which statement is true regarding routing metrics?
* All routing protocols use the same metrics.
EIGRP uses bandwidth as its only metric.
Routers compare metrics to determine the best route.
The larger metric generally represents the better path.
20. Refer to the exhibit. The network is running the RIP routing protocol. Network 10.0.0.0 goes down. Which statement is true regarding how the routers in this topology will respond to this event?
Router4 will learn about the failed route 30 seconds later in the next periodic update.
* Split horizon will prevent Router4 from fowarding packets to the 10.0.0.0 network until the holddown timer expires.
Router5 immediately flushes the unreachable route from its routing table.
Router5 will send Router4 a triggered update with a metric of 16 for network 10.0.0.0.
21. What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running OSPF to advertise the entire range of addresses included in 172.16.0.0/19 in area 0?
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
* R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.31.255 area 0
22. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are both level 1 and qualify for use as an ultimate route?
1
2
3
* 4
5
6
23. Refer to the exhibit. What will happen if interface Serial0/0/1 goes down on Router1?
The Dijkstra algorithm will calculate the feasible successor.
DUAL will query neighbors for a route to network 192.168.1.0.
Neighbor 172.16.3.2 will be promoted to the feasible successor.
* Traffic destined to the 192.168.1.0 network will be dropped immediately due to lack of a feasible successor.
24. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on Router1. What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by Router1 and is destined for host 192.168.0.26?
The packet will be dropped.
The packet will be forwarded to the gateway of last resort.
* The packet will match the 192.168.0.0 network and be forwarded out Serial 0/0.
The packet will most closely match the 192.168.0.8 subnet and be forwarded out Serial 0/1.
25. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)
* The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
The router changes the source IP to the IP of the exit interface.
The router maintains the same source and destination IP.
The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.
* The router changes the destination IP to the IP of the exit interface.
* The router sends the packet out all other interfaces, besides the one it entered the router on.
26. Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarization of the routes attached to router R1?
198.18.0.0/16
198.18.48.0/21
198.18.32.0/22
* 198.18.48.0/23
198.18.49.0/23
198.18.52.0/22
27. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)
* The routers must elect a designated router.
The routers must agree on the network type.
The routers must use the same dead interval.
* The routers must exchange link state requests.
The routers must exchange database description packets.
28. Refer to the exhibit. The network is using the RIPv2 routing protocol. If network 10.0.0.0 goes down, what mechanism will prevent Router1 from advertising false routing information back to Router2?
triggered updates
poison reverse
* holddown timers
split horizon
29. Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network attached to R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B to network 10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing table?
Both routes are installed and load balancing occurs across both paths.
The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.
The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.
* The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.
The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.
30. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts on the BOS Fa0/0 LAN are able to ping the Fa0/1 interface on the JAX router and all interfaces on the BOS and ORL routers. Why would hosts from the 10.0.0.0/24 network not be able to ping hosts on the Fa0/0 LAN of the JAX router?
The JAX router has the wrong process ID.
The JAX router needs the network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
* The JAX router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
The BOS router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
31. What is the purpose of the TTL field within an IP packet header?
clears an unreachable route from the routing table after the invalid timer expires
prevents regular update messages from inappropriately reinstating a route that may have gone bad
* removes an unreachable route from the routing table after the flush timer expires
limits the period of time or number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded
used to mark the route as unreachable in a routing update that is sent to other routers
32. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is testing network connectivity by issuing the tracert command from host A to host B. Given the exhibited output on host A, what are two possible routing table issues on the network? (Choose two.)
* Router1 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network
* Router1 is missing a route to the 192.168.1.0 network
Router2 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network
Router2 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network
Router3 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network
Router3 is missing a route to the 192.168.0.0 network
33. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration?
Using dynamic routing instead of static routing would have required fewer configuration steps.
* The 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 routes have adjacent boudaries and should be summarized.
The static route will not work correctly.
Packets routed to the R2 ethernet interface require two routing table lookups.
34. Refer to the exhibit.
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0
* ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/1
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.1
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.2
ip route 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0
* ip route 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/1
35. A router has learned about a network through static and dynamic routing processes. Which route will be used to reach network 192.168.168.0?
D 192.168.168.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, Ethernet0
O 192.168.168.0/24 [110/1012] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:22, Ethernet0
* R 192.168.168.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, Ethernet0
S 192.168.168.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.200.1
36. What are three features of CDP? (Choose three.)
tests Layer 2 connectivity
* provides a layer of security
* operates a OSI layers 2 and 3
enabled by default on each interface
* used for debugging Layer 4 connectivity issues
provides information on directly connected devices that have CDP enabled
37. Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a network, it is important to interpret the output of various router commands. On the basis of the exhibit, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
The missing information for Blank 1 is the command show ip route.
* The missing information for Blank 1 is the command debug ip route.
* The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 100.
The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 120.
* The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter R.
The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter C.
38. Which of the following could describe the devices labeled “?” in the graphic? (Choose three.)
* DCE
CSU/DSU
* LAN switch
modem
* hub
39. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.)
* The route to network 172.16.0.0 has an AD of 156160.
* Network 192.168.0.16 can best be reached using FastEthernet0/0.
The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value.
Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.
* Network 172.17.0.0 can only be reached using a default route.
No default route has been configured.
40. Refer to the exhibit. The ORL router is unable to form a neighbor relationship with the JAX router. What is a possible cause of this problem?
Router JAX has the wrong autonomous-system number.
The command network 192.168.2.0 is missing from the EIGRP configuration on the JAX router.
* Automatic summarization is not disabled on the JAX router.
Router JAX has the wrong IP address on the Fa0/1 interface.
41. Refer to the exhibit. Routers 1 and 2 are directly connected over a serial link.
Set the encapsulation on both routers to PPP.
* Decrease the bandwidth on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 1544.
Change the cable that connects the routers to a crossover cable.
Change the IP address on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 192.168.0.1/30.
42. The
The ip classless command is not enabled on the
The route was ignored if the
* The
The ip subnet-zero command was not configured on the
The ip classless command is not enabled on the
43. When presented with multiple valid routes to a destination, what criteria does a router use to determine which routes to add to the routing table?
The router selects the routes with the best metric. All routes that have the same best metric are added to the routing table.
The router first selects routes with the lowest administrative distance. The resulting routes are then prioritized by metric and the routes with the best metric are added to the routing table.
The router selects the routes with the lowest administrative distance. All routes with the same lowest administrative distance are added to the routing table.
* The router installs all routes in the routing table but uses the route with the best metric most when load balancing.
44. Refer to the exhibit. What are the effects of the exhibited commands on the router?
All passwords are encrypted.
* Only Telnet sessions are encrypted.
Only the enable password is encrypted.
Only the enable password and Telnet session are encrypted.
Enable and console passwords are encrypted.
45. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are running the EIGRP routing protocol. What statement is true regarding how packets will travel from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network?
The router chooses the first path that it learned and installs only that route in the routing table.
The router chooses the path with the lowest administrative distance and installs only that route in the routing table.
* The router chooses the highest routing ID based on the advertised network IP addresses and installs only that route in the routing table.
The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table but sends packets out only one, holding the others in reserve in case the primary route goes down.
The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table and performs equal cost load balancing to send packets out multiple exit interfaces.
46. When the show cdp neighbors command is issued from Router C, which devices will be displayed in the output?
D, SWH-2
* A, B, D
SWH-1, SWH-2
B, D
SWH-1, A, B
A, B, D, SWH-1, SWH-2
47. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
10.0.0.0/8
* 64.100.0.0/16
128.107.0.0/16
* 172.16.40.0/24
192.168.1.0/24
192.168.2.0/24
48. Refer to the exhibit. Which path will traffic from the 172.16.1.0/24 network take to get to the 10.0.0.0/24 network?
ADC
ABC
It will load balance the traffic between ADC and ABC
* It will send the traffic via ABC, and will use ADC as a backup path only when ABC fails.
49. Refer to exhibit. A company network engineer enters the following commands in the routers:
R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1
When the engineer enters the show ip route command on R1, the routing table does not display the static route to the 10.1.1.0 network. All R1 and R2 interfaces are correctly addressed per the graphic. What is a logical next step that the engineer could take in order to make the static route display in the routing table in R1?
Enter default routes in R1 and R2.
Enable the R1 and R2 serial interfaces.
Configure the static route to use an exit interface instead of a next-hop address.
* Enter the copy run start command to force the router to recognize the configuration.
50. Refer to the exhibit. A packet enters Router1 with a destination IP of 172.16.28.121. Which routing table entry will be used to forward this packet to the destination address?
* 172.16.0.0/16 [1/0] via 192.168.0.1
172.16.0.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.9
172.16.16.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.17
0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/1
51. Refer to the exhibit. A new PC was deployed in the Sales network. It was given the host address of 192.168.10.31 with a default gateway of 192.168.10.17. The PC is not communicating with the network properly. What is the cause?
* The address is in the wrong subnet.
192.168.10.31 is the broadcast address for this subnet.
The default gateway is incorrect.
The host address and default gateway are swapped.
52. Refer to the routing table shown in the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 192?
It is the value assigned by the Dijkstra algorithm that designates the number of hops in the network.
* It is the value used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link.
It is the metric, which is cost.
It is the administrative distance.
53. Using default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from flash?
Perform the POST routine.
Search for a backup IOS in
Load the bootstrap program from ROM.
Load the running-config file from RAM.
Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM.
54. Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are running RIPv2 and EIGRP with default routing protocol settings and have interfaces configured with the bandwidths that are shown in the exhibit. Which protocol will be used and how will traffic between the Router1 LAN and Router5 LAN be routed through the network?
RIPv2 will load balance across both paths between Router1 and Router5.
* EIGRP will load balance across both paths between Router1 and Router5.
RIPv2 traffic will use the path Router1, Router2, Router5 because it has the least hops.
EIGRP traffic will use the path Router1, Router3, Router4, Router5 because it has the best metric.
55. Which three statements are true of holddown timers? (Choose three.)
* used by link state routing protocols to prevent routing loops
prevent update messages from reinstating a route that may have gone bad
allow routers to still forward packets to destination networks that are in holddown
* limit the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded
* prevent a router advertising a network through the same interface from which the network was learned
permit lower metric updates received from any neighboring router to reinstate the route to a possibly down network
56. The network administrator configures the router with the ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 command. How will this route appear in the routing table?
C 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0
* S 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0
C 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2
S 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2
57. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.)
DRAM - loads the bootstrap
* RAM - stores the operating system
Flash - executes diagnostics at bootup
NVRAM - stores the configuration file
* ROM - stores the backup configuration file
POST - runs diagnostics on hardware modules
58. Refer to exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are needed to configure EIGRP on the
Paris(config)# router eigrp 100
* Paris(config)# router eigrp
* Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.6.0
Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.7.0
Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.8.0
* Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.9.0
1 A technician is testing the functionality of a recently installed router. The technician is unable to ping the serial interface of a remote router. The technician executes the show interface serial 0/0 command on the local router and receives the following output:
Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is down(disabled)
What are possible causes for this command output? (Choose two.)
• interface missing the no shutdown command
• clockrate command missing
* CSU/DSU failed
* interface shutdown due to high error rate
• cable missing
2 A technician has used Telnet to gain remote access to a router that has no connectivity on its serial interface. Which command should be issued to determine if the serial cable is connected properly?
* show controllers
• show processes
• show run
• show status
3 A two router network is running PPP over the serial interfaces that connect them. The enable password on the Denim router is "gateway". The Denim router also has a locally configured authentication password for the Plaid router which is "fortress". Which command must be executed on the Plaid router to allow Denim to authenticate to the Plaid router using CHAP?
• Plaid(config)# enable secret gateway
• Plaid(config)# enable secret fortress
• Plaid(config)# username Plaid password fortress
* Plaid(config)# username Denim password fortress
• Plaid(config)# hostname Plaid secret password gateway
• Plaid(config)# hostname Plaid secret password fortress
4
Refer to the output of the show interface Serial0/0 command in the graphic. How many NCPs have been established?
• 1
* 2
• 3
• 4
5 Which command specifies a link quality over a PPP link?
• ppp link 50
• ppp link quality 60
• ppp percentage 80
* ppp quality 90
6 When troubleshooting the Serial 0/0 interface of a router, a technician issues the show controllers command. The following was the output of the command:
Interface is Serial0/0, electrical interface is UNKNOWN.
What can be concluded about the Serial 0/0 interface? (Choose three.)
* Serial0z0 is down, line protocol is down
• Serial0/0 is down, line protocol is up
• Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is down
• The interface is neither DCE or DTE.
* The interface hardware may be faulty.
* The cabling may be improperly connected.
7 Which of the following is a reason for using such protocols as PAP and CHAP?
• to establish a PPP session
• to provide error checking on a WAN link
* to restrict access to networks connected by serial and ISDN links
• to provide a backup hostname and privilege mode password on the router
8 Several tasks must occur before a link between two routers can pass data using PPP. Which of the following are required to establish and maintain a PPP session between two routers?
• configure each host with a PPP address
• configure authentication between the two routers
* send LCP and NCP frames to negotiate configuration parameters
• send hostname and password information between the two routers
9 Which of the following describes the High-Level Data Link Control protocol? (Choose three.)
* HDLC provides flow and error control.
• Standard HDLC supports multiple protocols on a single link.
* HDLC uses sequencing and acknowledgements.
• HDLC is defined as the default encapsulation on Cisco LAN interfaces.
* Cisco implemented a proprietary version of HDLC.
10 Which authentication protocol can be spoofed to allow playback attacks?
• MD5
• CHAP
* PAP
• NCP
11 ISDN BRI service uses two B channels to send data, voice, and video. If the first channel becomes saturated, the second channel can be configured to forward packets. Which command will allow ISDN to load balance across both links?
• Router(config-if)# ppp quality 2
• Router(config-if)# ip variance
• Router(config-if)# ip maximum-paths 2
* Router(config-if)# ppp multilink
12 PPP uses several protocols for communication. Which of the following are options that the LCP protocol in the PPP architecture can provide? (Choose two.)
* testing the quality of the link
• routing packets between devices
• assigning individual station addresses
• configuring network layer protocols
• negotiating authentication options
13 How did Cisco alter the HDLC encapsulation to allow a single link to carry multiple protocols?
• split the transmissions into multiple channels each carrying a single protocol
• identified the protocol in the FCS field
• compressed the datagrams differently for each protocol
* added a type field to identify the protocol
14 Which of the following is an advantage of using time-division multiplexing (TDM) for transmitting data? (Choose two.)
• It allows a single source to transmit over multiple data channels.
* Multiple sources can transmit over a single channel.
* Original data streams must be reconstructed at the destination.
• TDM relies on Layer 3 protocols to operate.
15
What can be concluded from the output shown in the graphic? (Choose three.)
• A two-way handshake is occuring.
* The LCPs were already negotiated.
* The router can begin NCP negotiations.
• The debug ppp negotiation command was executed.
* The debug ppp authentication command was executed.
16
Which command was used to display the partial output shown in the graphic?
• show ppp traffic
• show lcp traffic
* debug ppp negotiation
• debug ppp authentication
17 How is the MD5 function valuable in authentication? (Choose two.)
* uses a one-way hash function
• authentication occurs more rapidly
* challenges are unique
• the remote router assumes control of frequency of challenge
the remote router assumes control of timing of challenge
18 What are three features of the CHAP protocol? (Choose three.)
* exchanges a random challenge number during the session to verify identity
• sends authentication password to verify identity
* prevents transmission of login information in plain text
* disconnects the PPP session if authentication fails
• initiates a two-way handshake
19 Which of the following describe functions of the Point-to-Point protocol with regards to the OSI model? (Choose three.)
• PPP uses Layer 3 of the OSI model to establish and maintain a session between devices.
• PPP operates at all layers of the OSI model.
* PPP uses the data link layer to configure such options as error detection and compression.
* PPP provides a mechanism to multiplex several network layer protocols.
• PPP uses Network Control Protocols (NCP) to test and maintain connectivity between devices.
* PPP can be configured on both synchronous and asynchronous serial interfaces.
20 Which advantage does the multilink option provide when using PPP?
* Data transmission has load balancing possibilities.
• Interfaces can be configured using both HDLC and PPP.
• More than one authentication method can be used.
• More than one compression protocol can be configured.
1 Which of the following correctly describes ISDN BRI? (Choose three.)
* two 64 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel
* B channel is suitable for voice data
• uses in-band signaling
* uses out-of-band signaling
• offers the equivalent of a T1/E1 connection
• twenty-three 64 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel
2 Which of the following is considered out-of-band signaling?
• using a frequency outside of the rated bandwidth for transmission
• transmitting data over a control channel
* using a separate channel for control signals
• transmitting control signals over a data channel
3 A network administrator is troubleshooting ISDN connectivity. The administrator suspects the problem lies with the authentication protocol. What command should the administrator use to view the authentication process between the router and the ISDN switch?
• debug pap authentication
• debug chap authentication
* debug ppp authentication
• debug isdn authentication
4 Which router command would be used to enter the mode for configuring a T1 PRI connection?
* Router(config)# controller t1 {slot/port}
• Router(config)# interface pri t1 {slot/port}
• Router(config)# interface pri {slot/port} t1
• Router(config)# controller {slot/port} t1
5
The network administrator of XYZ company needs to configure a new ISDN router. After entering the commands shown in the graphic, the administrator tries to access the Internet but the ISDN connection does not open. If the service provider verifies that the problem is with XYZ's configuration, what is a possible cause of the problem?
• The dialer map is configured incorrectly.
• The encapsulation type is configured incorrectly.
* The dialer group is configured incorrectly.
• The ACL is configured incorrectly.
• The isdn switch-type command needs to be configured globally.
6 Which of the following protocols can be used to encapsulate data traffic sent from a router BRI interface? (Choose two.)
• Link Access Protocol - Data
* High-Level Data Link Control
• Logical Link Control
• Serial Data Link Control
* Point to Point protocol
• Binary Synchronous Control protocol
7
A small company uses an ISDN WAN link to transfer e-mail to remote sites. What command would the administrator use to determine if the ISDN link is up?
* show isdn status
• show isdn active
• show dialer
• show interface bri0/0
• debug isdn active
8 Which command configures an ISDN interface to use a switch type which is different from that used on other interfaces on the router?
• Router(config)#switch-type switch-type
• Router(config-if)#switch-type switch-type
• Router(config)#isdn switch-type switch-type
* Router(config-if)#isdn switch-type switch-type
9 Which of the following is essential for all ISDN BRI interface configurations?
* ISDN switch type
• line encoding technique
• line framing method
• local directory number
• service profile identifier
10 You have just taken delivery of a new US standard Cisco 2620 router that includes a BRI "U" interface? Which of the following describes how this router will be connected in the ISDN network?
• An external terminal adapter (TA) must be attached to the router for connectivity.
• An NT1 must be connected to the router for connectivity.
* The router is a TE1 device and is ready to connect to the provider's network.
• The router is a TE2 device and requires both a TA and NT1 for connectivity.
11 What must be configured for an ISDN PRI connection? (Choose three.)
* ISDN switch type
• Service Profile Identifier (SPID)
• Dial-on-Demand Routing (DDR)
* PRI group time slot
* T1/E1 controller, framing type and line coding
12
A network administrator is troubleshooting an ISDN connectivity problem. Users are complaining they cannot connect to the Internet. The network administrator suspects the ISDN connection attempt is timing out before a connection can be established. What command would the network administrator use to determine what the "wait for carrier" timeout value is set to?
• show isdn status
• show isdn active
* show dialer
• show interfaces bri0/0
• debug isdn q931
• show ISDN interfaces
13 What is a reason why static routes are preferred over dynamic routes for DDR to operate on an ISDN interface?
• An ISDN interface will not allow dynamic routing updates that use broadcast technology.
• A dynamic route will take precedence over a static route because of its lower administrative distance.
• Dynamic routing can never be considered interesting traffic by default.
• Dialer-list configuration does not support dynamic routing.
* Dynamic routes may cause the ISDN connection to dial constantly to transmit updates.
14 Which of the following describes the use of a SPID? (Choose two.)
• selects the ISDN switch type
* identifies the line configuration of the BRI service
* allows multiple ISDN devices to share the local loop
• designates whether a device is a TE1 or TE2
• allows ISDN broadcasts
15 Which command is used within an existing ISDN network to display current call information, including the called number?
• show isdn status
* show isdn active
• show interfaces bri0/0
• show ip interfaces
16 Which of the following are true of ISDN routers configured with dialer profiles? (Choose two.)
• They do not use ACL to define interesting traffic.
* Their B channels can be configured with different subnets and encapsulation types.
* Their BRI interfaces can belong to multiple dialer pools.
• They use PPP only.
• They can only use the CHAP authentication protocol.
17 A network administrator in
• Nothing. The router is already suitable.
• BRI WAN interface card to install in the router
* an external NT1 to terminate the local loop
• a TA/NT1 device to install on the router
18 Why must routers be configured to specify the ISDN switch type?
* Switches use various implementations of Q.931.
• The IOS of most routers lacks the ability to autosense the switch.
• The switch must know what type of router it is communicating with.
• The Layer 3 connection between the terminal equipment and the ISDN switch is not standardized.
1 How does Frame Relay technology process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.)
* Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery.
• It requires the receiving device to request that the sender retransmit erroneous frames.
• FECN, BECN, and DE bits are set in the frames to minimize errors.
* The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender.
• The frame relay switch notifies the sender that errors were detected.
2 Which statement identifies a reason for using point-to-point subinterfaces in Frame Relay networks?
* Subinterfaces overcome routing update and split-horizon issues that occur with multipoint logical interfaces on a single physical interface.
• A point-to-point subinterface does not require an IP address and therefore saves address space.
• Point-to-point subinterfaces provide greater reliability and reachability in Frame Relay networks by requiring a mesh topology for network configurations.
• Point-to-point subinterfaces increase the number of DLCIs that can be configured in a Frame Relay network.
3
A ping is sent to address 192.168.50.10 from the Peanut router. Which DLCI will be used to send the ping?
* 110
• 115
• 220
• 225
4 Which data link layer protocol is used to carry frames across a Frame Relay link?
• PPP
• LAPD
* LAPF
• Frame Relay
5 Which bits are set in the data frames to request that a device reduce the flow of data sent to or from a Frame Relay switch?
• EIR bits
* ECN bits
• CIR bits
• DE bits
• Window bits
6 Why are full mesh topologies seldom found in large Frame Relay networks?
• Additional hardware is required to achieve the mesh.
• The additional virtual circuits slow the link access speeds.
* The required number of links becomes prohibitive.
• Additional interfaces are required since each can only support 10 virtual circuits.
• The speed of transmission slows in inverse proportion to the square of the number of links.
7 Which of the following occurs when the command frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 22 is configured on the router? (Choose two.)
• DLCI 22 will replace the MAC address in the ARP table for entry 10.1.1.1
• The remote circuit with DLCI 22 can receive a ping.
• Inverse-ARP will be used to add an entry for 10.1.1.1 into the frame-relay map table using DLCI 22.
*
* The router will use DLCI 22 to forward data to 10.1.1.1.
8 Why is the keepalive mechanism added as an extension to the Local Management Interface in a Frame Relay network?
• to identify which routers were experiencing congestion
* to verify the status of PVCs in the Frame Relay network
• to dynamically map a MAC address to an IP address in a Frame Relay network
• to signal to the router the status of the routing protocols configured in the Frame Relay network
9 Which of the following statements are true about a basic Frame Relay WAN connection between a customer and the service provider? (Choose two.)
* DTE devices such as routers and FRADs transmit user data.
• DTE devices such as Frame Relay switches transport the data between DTE devices.
• An Ethernet connection between the router and the frame relay switch allow access to the frame relay network.
* Serial connections between the customer and the frame relay network are used to transport data.
• The Frame Relay WAN is a mesh of interconnected routers.
10 What is created between two DTEs in a Frame Relay network?
* switched parallel circuit
* permanent virtual circuit
• limited access circuit
• ISDN circuit
• Frame Relay circuit
11 Which features make Frame Relay technology a cost-effective alternative to a mesh of dedicated leased lines? (Choose three.)
* allows a single interface to support multiple PVCs
* minimizes the equipment required to be purchased by the customer
• requires one router interface for each PVC
• provides the customer with redundancy if a single interface goes down
* allows the customer to pay for the average bandwidth requirement rather than the maximum bandwidth requirement
12 Which of the following allow the router to map data link layer addresses to network layer addresses in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
• ARP
• RARP
• Proxy ARP
* Inverse ARP
* LMI status messages
• ICMP
13
When troubleshooting a Frame Relay connection, an administrator entered the show interfaces s0/0 command and received the output shown in the exhibit. What are two probable reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)
• The cable between the CSU/DSU and the router is disconnected.
• The serial 0/0 interface is shutdown.
* The router is not configured for the same Frame Relay PVC as the switch.
* The LMI type on the Frame Relay switch is NOT ANSI.
• The address of the Frame Relay switch is not in the routing table.
14
Which commands were added to the configuration to produce the output shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)
• Router(config)# ip route 192.168.192.4 255.255.255.0 17 broadcast
• Router(config-if)# frame-relay lmi-type cisco 17
* Router(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 192.168.192.4 17 broadcast
• Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.192.4 255.255.255.0 DLCI 17 static
• Router(config-if)# interface S0/0.1 point-to-point
* Router(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay cisco
15 What does a DLCI of 1023 indicate about a frame?
• The LMI type is ANSI.
• The LMI type is IETF.
* The LMI type is Cisco.
• The LMI type is Q933a.
• The encapsulation is Cisco.
• The encapsulation is IETF.
16 Which methods are used to minimize heavy traffic on a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
• FRADs or routers set ECN bits to request that the Frame Relay switch reduce the flow of frames on the link.
• Windowing is used to reduce the size of the frames sent across the link.
* The Frame Relay switch will drop packets that have the DE bit set.
* When a switch sees its queue increasing, it notifies DTEs to reduce the flow of traffic.
• When congestion occurs, all frames are dropped until the congestion clears.
17
When troubleshooting a frame relay connection, a technician entered the show frame-relay pvc command shown in the graphic. What can be concluded from the output shown in the graphic? (Choose three.)
* The output in the debug frame-relay lmi command will indicate status 0x2 for DLCI 18.
* DLCI 16 was correctly programmed on the switch, but the remote router may be misconfigured.
* The frame relay switch is sending LMI status messages about DLCI 16 to the
• Congestion has been experienced on DLCI 18.
• Some packets have been set to be dropped if congestion is experienced on the PVC.
18 Which of the following DLCIs are reserved?
• 16
• 127
• 255
* 1023
• 2048
19 Which of the following statements regarding multipoint subinterfaces are true? (Choose two.)
* A single multipoint subinterface is used to establish PVC connections to multiple physical interfaces on remote routers.
• Each multipoint link is in its own subnet.
* The physical interface does not have an IP address.
• Split-horizon is disabled allowing routing updates to be re-transmitted on every subinterface.
• Multipoint subinterfaces require the encapsulation frame-relay command to be issued individually for each subinterface to operate correctly.
20 How is a permanent virtual circuit identified in a Frame Relay network that is carrying IP traffic?
* It is given a fixed locally significant identification number.
• It is identified by the MAC address of the router interface.
• Dynamic virtual channel identifiers are assigned to each frame transmitted across the network.
• It is identifed by the MAC address of the switch port.
21 What is the purpose of the FCS field in a Frame Relay frame?
• It serves to distinguish one frame from the next.
• It is used to signal network congestion.
* It is used to detect if the frame has been corrupted and should be discarded.
• It determines which VC should be used for transmission.
1 For which platform was UNIX first marketed commercially?
• workstations and servers
• workstations
* network servers
• large mainframe systems
2 How does RMON gather statistics on a segment?
• analyzes traps on the segment
• polls packets on the segment
* analyzes every frame on the segment
• analyzes source and destination addresses
3 Which operating systems support multiuser capability? (Choose three.)
* Linux
• Windows 98
• Windows ME
* Windows XP
* Windows 2000
4 Which statements are true regarding configuring SNMP? (Choose three.)
• It is best to use the default read-only community strings in enterprise networks.
* It is not advisable to use the default read-write community string in an enterprise network.
* More than one read-only community string is supported.
* Authorized management stations can modify MIB objects with read-write access specified.
• The maximum number of read-write strings supported is one.
5 Which statements describe the Windows 2000 operating system family? (Choose three.)
* .NET Server was designed to run enterprise level web and FTP services.
• Active Directory services run on both Windows 2000 Professional and Windows 2000 Server.
* The entire family of Windows 2000 operating systems can operate as a file, print, FTP or web server.
• Both Windows 2000 Professional and Server can support up to 256 simultaneous dialup sessions.
* .NET server was designed to compete with Linux and Unix.
6 Which of the following is a collection of software which includes a GUI interface to allow the network administrator to monitor and manage the network?
* network management application
• network management agent
• management information base
• network management protocol
7 Which command would enable logging on all supported destinations?
• Router(config)# logging 131.152.0.0
• Router(config)# logging routerA
* Router(config)# logging on
• Router(config)# logging enable
8 How does SNMPv3 address the security shortcomings of SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c?
• improved SMI features
• support for centralized and distributed management
* secure access to MIBs
• control of heterogeneous networks
9 Which means of communication does an SNMP network agent use to provide a network management station with important but unsolicited information?
• query
• broadcast
• ICMP ping
* trap
• poll
10 Which of the following describes the community strings used for SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c? (Choose two.)
* The community strings are sent using UDP.
• The read only string on most devices is set to private.
• The read/write string on most devices is set to public.
• Only the NMA needs to be configured with the community strings.
* The community strings are sent across the network in cleartext.
11
In the above illustration, which configuration commands can be used to specify the location of a managed device and the main system contacts for the device? (Choose two.)
• SanJose(config-if)# snmp-server SanJose
* Atlanta(config)# snmp-server contact JPSmith
• Atlanta(config)# snmp contact JPSmith
* SanJose(config)# snmp-server location SanJose
• Chicago#(config)# snmp chicago
12 Which features are supported by the Mac OS X system that make it a competitive choice for operating systems? (Choose four.)
* protected memory
• sixty-two bit addressing
* preemptive multitasking
• open source operating system code
* symmetric multiprocessing
* Appletalk-to-Windows network connectivity
13 An SNMPv1 agent would issue a GetResponse message to reply to which NMS requests? (Choose three.)
* GetRequest
• GetBulkRequest
* GetNextRequest
* SetRequest
• GetNextbulkRequest
14 Why are SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c community strings considered a security risk?
• SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c encapsulations are not encrypted by default.
* SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c community strings are sent as cleartext.
• SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c are limited to 32-bit counters.
• SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c uses a connectionless protocol.
15 Which of the following does SNMP use to hold information collected about the network?
• network management station
• network management database
* management information base
• database information agent
16 Which of the following are examples of network management applications? (Choose two.)
• Windows 2000 Professional
* Ciscoworks2000
* HP Openview
• Red Hat Linux
• Cisco ConfigMaker
1
Which of the following are benefits of creating a subnetwork structure in an IP network? (Choose three.)
permits network address duplication
*allows for address flexibility
*prevents address replication
provides broadcast containment
adds low-level security
*allows for more network hosts available
2
Refer to the graphic. Which of the following are true regarding the route summary EIGRP would utilize for the networks on RouterA? (Choose two.)
The networks can be summarized with auto-summary.
*The network summary must be manually configured.
The default subnet mask can be used to summarize the networks.
The networks can be summarized with 172.16.64.0/26.
*The networks can be summarized with 172.16.64.0/27.
The networks can be summarized with 172.16.64.0/28.
3
Which address does a bridge use to build its bridging table?
destination IP address
*destination MAC address
source IP address
source MAC address
4
Which of the following do switches send at regular intervals to eliminate switching loops?
bi-directional protocol data units
binary protocol data units
*bridge protocol data units
buffered protocol data units
5
What is required to configure multiple DLCIs on a single router interface?
A single network address
Multiple LMIs
*Subinterfaces
Multiple IP addresses on the same subnet
6
Which component designates a device that is not compatible with ISDN and requires a terminal adapter?
NT1
*NT2
TE1
TE2
7
What is an advantage of the use of layers in the OSI reference model?
It breaks network communications into larger parts.
It increases complexity.
*It prevents changes in one layer from affecting other layers.
It requires the use of single-vendor equipment for hardware and software communications.
8
What is the purpose of the show CDP neighbors command?
to send a summary of the local router configuration to all directly attached Cisco devices
*to display information about all Cisco devices that are directly connected to a local router
to display information about all Cisco networks in the WAN
to display addressing information about all remote routers
to display the names of all OSPF neighbors in the local area
9
Which type of ACL only checks the source address?
Extended ACL
General ACL
Source ACL
*Standard ACL
10
Which of the following improves security in PPP authentication?
LCP
NCP
*CHAP
PAP
11
For which condition will the ARP protocol be used?
The destination IP address is unknown.
*The destination MAC address is unknown.
The source IP address is unknown.
The source MAC address is unknown.
12
What is the name of that point in a LAN where the responsibility of the network administrator ends and the responsibility of the telco begins?
point of presence
local loop
DTE
*demarcation
13
What determines how much data a sending station running TCP/IP can transmit before it must receive an acknowledgment?
segment size
transmission rate
*bandwidth
window size
sequence number
14
Which utility can be used to verify connectivity through all seven layers of the OSI model?
netstat
ping
*Telnet
traceroute
15
Which statements about VLANs are true? (Choose three.)
VLANs are restricted to a physical segment.
*They are logical groupings of devices.
*User hosts can be grouped by function.
*VLANs are configured by software.
VLANs are standardized.
16
Which of the following IP addresses are broadcast addresses if the subnet mask is 255.255.255.240? (Choose three.)
*75.32.75.15
205.16.35.11
*199.254.129.111
*129.130.17.143
135.22.55.93
105.33.62.213
17
Which networking device performs path determination?
a hub
a switch
*a router
a bridge
18
Which device allows data communication to occur between VLANs?
bridge
hub
switch
*router
19
Which method does a router use to build a Frame Relay map?
ARP requests
RARP requests
Inverse RARP requests
*Inverse ARP requests
20
Routers and switches both perform important tasks in an internetwork. Which of the following are distinguishing differences between them? (Choose two.)
Routers are used more than switches.
Routers need no configuration to operate.
*Routers and switches operate at different layers of the OSI model.
Routers and switches route different sets of protocols.
*Routers block broadcasts.
Switches create broadcast domains.
21
By default, which of the following metrics is given the most weight by IGRP?
*bandwidth
hop count
load
reliability
22
Which statement is correct concerning routing and routed protocols?
*A routed protocol allows the routers to communicate with other routers and maintain tables for a routing protocol.
A routing protocol allows routers to communicate with other routers and maintain tables for a routed protocol.
Routers only need to use routing protocols to work properly.
There is no difference between routed and routing protocols.
23
What does the ISDN BRI provide?
23 B channels and one 64 kbps D channel
total bit rate up to 1.536 Mbps
two 56 kbps B channels and one 64 kbps D channel
*two 64 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel
24
Which of the following EIGRP functions is the responsibility of the IP protocol-dependent module (PDM)? (Choose three.)
the calculation of successor and feasible successor routes for IP and IPX traffic
*the notification of DUAL when IP routing information is received
the communication of information about IP routes with neighbor routers
the maintenance of the IP routing table
*the exchange of hello packets with other IP-enabled routers
*the insertion of lowest cost paths into the routing table
25
Which of the following are functions of a WAN? (Choose three.)
*permit real-time communication between users
allow users access to high bandwidth
provide full-time local service
*provide e-mail and e-commerce services
connect physically adjacent devices
*provide access to computers in other locations
26
Which command will display statistics for all interfaces configured on a router?
list interfaces
*show interfaces
show processes
show statistics
27
What enables routers to learn of destination networks?
proxy ARP
host name tables
*routing protocols
DNS lookups
28
Which type of handshaking occurs when using CHAP?
one-way
two-way
*three-way
four-way
29
Which statement describes the store and forward transmission mode of an Ethernet switch?
It is also referred to as a hybrid mode or as error sensing mode.
It requires the switch to read the first 64 bytes of an Ethernet frame and then begins to forward the data.
It decreases the latency of the transmission but has very little error detection.
*It increases latency with large frames, but error detection is high.
30
When must data be sent by way of the default route?
The destination network is on a different network than the source.
The destination network is not directly connected to the router.
The destination network is a stub network.
*There is no entry in the routing table for the destination network.
31
Which statements describe the use of Link State Advertisements (LSA)? (Choose two.)
*LSAs are generated when changes in the network occur.
Link state advertisements are refreshed every 60 minutes.
The router copies the information received from each LSA packet into the routing table.
*Routers exchange LSAs to build and maintain topology databases.
Forwarding LSAs can increase the occurrence of routing loops.
32
Identify the correct pairing of a protocol and its classification.
BGP-Interior
IGRP-Exterior
OSPF-Exterior
*RIP-Interior
33
Which of the following is the ISDN Layer 2 signaling protocol?
BRI
PRI
LAPA
*LAPD
34
What transmission channels are provided by an ISDN BRI service?
23 64 kbps B channels and one 64 kbps D channel
30 64 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel
two 56 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel
*two 64 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel
two 64 kbps D channels and one 16 kbps B channel
23 64 kbps D channels and one 64 kbps B channel
35
The switches in the graphic are configured for VTP as shown. Select the statements that correctly describe the operation of these switches. (Choose two.)
A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added only to Switch2.
An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch2 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch4.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch4 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch3.
*A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added to Switch2 and Switch4.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch3 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch4.
*An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch4 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch2.
36
What is the default ISDN encapsulation used on Cisco ISDN routers?
SLIP
PPP
*HDLC
VPP
37
Which of the following represents a group of routers under a common administration and is required when configuring routing protocols such as IGRP or EIGRP?
control group
*autonomous system
corporate system
Domain Name System
local-area network
wide-area network
38
Given a router that has already been configured, what is the correct loading sequence when powering on?
bootstrap, RAM, operating system
bootstrap, configuration file, operating system
*bootstrap, operating system, configuration file
operating system, configuration file, RAM
39
Which of the following are routed protocols?
AppleTalk, IP, IGRP
*IP, AppleTalk, IPX
IP, RIP, IPX
IPX, OSPF, EIGRP
40
Which functions are carried out by switches and bridges when building the CAM tables? (Choose three.)
builds the table using unknown source MAC addresses from received frames
builds the table using unknown destination MAC addresses from received frames
*time stamps the entries for each address
*time stamps the BPDU of each frame received
*maps switch port numbers with the associated MAC address
maps switch port numbers with the associated network address
41
All the routers in the network shown in the graphic are part of the same OSPF area. All the routers were powered up simultaneously, except Router E, which was brought online the following day. Which router will be the BDR after the network has converged?
Router A
Router B
Router C
Router D
*Router E
42
Which reason is correct for having at least one true condition in an ACL?
If there is not a true statement, all packets are returned to the sender.
*The implicit "deny any" statement will deny all traffic.
True conditions only test the status of the router.
You are not required to have a true statement in ACL.
43
Which layer is responsible for organizing bits using framing?
Layer 1
*Layer 2
Layer 3
Layer 4
44
What is the purpose of the IOS enable secret command?
*to set password protection on incoming Telnet sessions
to set password protection on the console terminal
to allow a user access to User mode
to allow a user to enter a password that will be encrypted
45
What reduces the problems of routing loops due to incorrect updates?
count to infinity
distance vector timers
event-triggered updates
*split horizon
46
Which of the following is true regarding routing metrics?
All routing protocols use the same metrics.
IGRP uses bandwidth as its only metric.
*Routers compare metrics to determine the best route.
The larger metric generally represents the better path.
47
Which of the following messages are sent from a DHCP server to a client during a successful configuration process? (Choose two.)
DHCPDISCOVER
*DHCPOFFER
*DHCPREQUEST
DHCPACK
48
What are the effects of LAN segmentation using a switch? (Choose three.)
*dedicated bandwidth between source and destinations
*enlarged collision domains
decreased broadcast domains
*increased number of collision domains
increased latency in the network
49
The Cake router shown in the graphic has multiple RIP version 2 paths to the network attached to E0 of the Pie router. Which interface on the Cake router will be used to forward a packet from the 192.168.5.0 network to the 192.168.13.0 network?
E0
*E1
S0
S1
It will load balance across S0 and S1.
It will load balance across S0, S1 and E1.
50
What is true about windowing?
It always requires separate acknowledgements for each segment sent.
*It controls the amount of data that can be sent before acknowledgement is required.
It requires the sender to re-establish a connection if no acknowledgement is received.
It allows TCP/IP to measure transmitted data in segments.
51
Company XYZ has a Class B address of 135.166.0.0 and currently has 4 individual segments to subnet. The company will be adding 5 additional segments over this year and 7 additional networks the following year. What subnet mask should be used on the network in order to support the largest number of hosts per subnet?
255.255.224.0
*255.255.240.0
255.255.248.0
255.255.250.0
255.255.252.0
52
Which of the following is true regarding latency?
CSMA/CD requires no latency.
It is also called asymmetry.
It is based entirely on distance.
*Networking devices add to latency.
53
What is the length, in bits, of an Ethernet address?
12
24
32
*48
80
128
54
How many bits are in IPv6 addresses?
16
32
64
96
*128
258
55
If the above network has been configured with RIPv2, how many usable host addresses are in the 192.168.10.192 subnet?
0
*2
4
6
8
56
Which methods do frame relay switches use to inform DTEs of congestion within the frame relay network?
CCP and LMI
CIR and LATE
DLCI and SPID
*FECN and BECN
57
What is the term for the cabling that connects the customer premises equipment to the CO switch?
demarc
local loop
final mile
*DTE
trunk line
58
An administrator has an older 1900 switch located on the edge of the network. What can the network administrator do to ensure that it does not become the root bridge of the spanning-tree network?
decrease the BPDU hello timer update on the 1900
assign the highest IP address to the switch that should be the root
assign the lowest IP address to new root bridge
*assign the lowest priority to the switch that should be the root
assign the highest priority to the new root bridge
decrease the BID on the 1900 switch
59
How is the number 225 represented in binary?
11001111
11011011
11110011
*11100001
60
What is the function of the first phase of PPP negotiation?
link termination
authentication of communicating peers
*link establishment and configuration
network layer protocol configuration
1 An ISDN circuit from a branch office is remaining connected to the regional office. A network administrator determines a user has initiated a continuous ping from a desktop computer to the regional office. Which configuration change would allow the ISDN circuit to disconnect during any attempts to ping, while otherwise functioning properly?
• change DDR from legacy to dialer profiles
• remove the dialer list statement from the configuration
* change the dialer list to exclude ICMP as interesting
• disable inverse ARP
2
Refer to the exhibit. The link between the RTR-1 and RTR-2 routers is configured as shown in the exhibit. Although the show interfaces command shows the interface status as Serial0 is up, line protocol is up, IP traffic is not crossing this link. What is the problem?
• The usernames are misconfigured.
• The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
* The IP addresses are not in the same subnet.
• Interface serial 0/0 on RTR-1 must connect to interface serial 0/1 on RTR-2.
• The passwords must be different for the CHAP authentication.
• The clock rate must be 56000.
3 A technician enters the interface serial 0/0.1 multipoint command when configuring a router. What effect will the multipoint keyword have in this configuration? (Choose two.)
* Split-horizon issues will need to be resolved for this network if RIP is the routing protocol.
• A subinterface will be defined for each PVC.
* All the participating interfaces of remote routers will be configured in the same subnet.
• A single DLCI will be used to define all the PVCs to the remote routers.
• An IP address will need to be configured on the main interface.
4 A branch office reports excessive connect time charges for an ISDN circuit used to connect to the regional office. Upon investigation of this issue, it is discovered that when an ISDN connection is initiated to the regional office it remains connected for an excessive amount of time. Which of the following configuration changes could be made to DDR on the router to reduce these connect time charges?
• use PPP multilink
* lower idle timer setting
• use CHAP authentication
• change DDR from legacy to dialer profiles
5
Which router command would be used to associate a Layer 2 address with the corresponding Layer 3 address in the internetwork in the diagram?
• RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay pvc 100 192.168.15.2
• RouterA(config-if)#dialer-map ip 192.168.15.1 100 broadcast
* RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 192.168.15.2 100 broadcast
• RouterA (config-if)#dialer-map 192.168.15.1 101 serial 0 broadcast
• RouterA (config-if)#frame-relay dlci 101 192.168.15.1 broadcast
• RouterA (config-if)#dialer-map 192.168.15.1 inverse-arp broadcast
6 What does the output of the show frame-relay map command shown below represent? (Choose two.)
Serial 0 (up): ip 172.30.151.4 dlci 122, dynamic, broadcast, status defined, active
* 172.30.151.4 represents the IP address of the remote router.
• 172.30.151.4 represents the IP address of the local serial interface.
• DLCI 122 represents the interface of the remote router.
* broadcast indicates that a dynamic routing protocol such as RIP v1 can send packets across this PVC.
• dynamic indicates that a dynamic routing protocol is enabled for this connection.
• active indicates that the ARP process is working.
7
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator of the
• The DHCP server service is not enabled.
• The DHCP pool is not bound to the interface.
• The inside interface for DCHP is not defined.
* The pool does not have a default router defined for the clients.
• All the host addresses have been excluded from the DHCP pool.
8 What are two ways to resolve split-horizon issues in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
* create a full-mesh topology
• disable Inverse ARP
* use point-to-point subinterfaces
• use multipoint subinterfaces
• remove the broadcast keyword from the frame-relay map command
9
What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco 806 broadband router?
• defines which addresses are allowed out of the router
• defines which addresses are allowed into the router
* defines which addresses can be translated
• defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool
10 Which scenarios present possible reasons for using the frame-relay map command when configuring a Frame Relay connection? (Choose two.)
* when dynamic mapping of DLCIs to IP addresses is not supported by the remote router
• when the local router is using IOS Release 11.1 or earlier
• when the remote router is a non-Cisco router
• when globally significant rather than locally significant DLCIs are being used
* when broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled
11 While testing a new network design in the lab, a network administrator is configuring a serial link that connects two routers back-to-back. In order to finish the configuration, the administrator needs to identify which router is connected to the DCE end of the cable. What command can be issued to provide this information?
• router# show status serial 0/0
* router# show controllers serial 0/0
• router# show protocols serial 0/0
• router# show version
• router# show interfaces serial 0/0
12 Which statements are correct about the point in the network where the responsibility of the service provider ends? (Choose three.)
* The International point is on the customer side of the network terminating unit(NTU).
* The
• The responsibility for this point is controlled by IANA.
* The point is called the demarcation point.
• The point is typically located at the service provider's central office.
• The point is located between the customer's local area networks.
13
A system administrator is unable to ping the Serial0/0 interface of RouterB from RouterA. During the troubleshooting process, the following facts are established:
- IP addressing and subnet masks are correct.
- RouterA is a Cisco router and RouterB is a router from another vendor.
- RouterA is configured with the default encapsulation.
- The serial interfaces on both routers are up.
- The protocol is down on the serial interfaces of both routers.
What should the administrator do to solve the problem?
• Add a clock rate on RouterA.
• Enable the serial interface on RouterB.
* Change the encapsulation on both routers to PPP.
• Connect the serial cable to the correct interface on RouterB.
• Use the correct serial cable to attach the CSU/DSU to RouterB.
14 When a Frame Relay switch detects an excessive buildup of frames in its queue, which of the following may occur? (Choose two.)
* Frames with the DE bit set are dropped from the switch queue.
• Frames with the FECN and BECN bits set are dropped from the switch queue.
• Frames in excess of the CIR are not accepted by the switch.
• The switch sets the FECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link and sets the BECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link.
* The switch sets the FECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link and sets the BECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link.
15
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is checking the status of router RTR_2. What is the most likely reason for the current status of the serial link to RTR_1?
* A cable has become disconnected.
• The circuit is experiencing excessive RFI.
• Authentication is not properly configured on the routers.
• The routers are configured for different WAN encapsulations.
• The clock rate is not properly configured on one of the routers.
16 What are two of the steps required to configure a router to connect over ISDN BRI? (Choose two.)
• Configure the interface with a DLCI.
* Configure the SPIDs, if required by the ISDN switch.
• Specify the the LMI type to be compatible with the CO switch.
• Set the interface encapsulation to the Cisco or IETF frame type.
• Configure a subinterface for each B channel.
* Set the switch type to work with the ISDN switch at the CO.
17 What value in the address field of a Frame Relay header identifies the destination of the frame?
• CIR
• DE
* DLCI
• ISDN
• FRAD
• PVC
18 Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
* A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
• A modem terminates a digital local loop.
• A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
* A modem terminates an analog local loop.
* A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
• A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
19
Refer to the exhibit. Two routers are connected through a Frame Relay point-to-point PVC. The ILM-5 router is from a vendor other than Cisco. Which interface command is required to configure the link between the Cisco ILM-3 router and router ILM-5?
• ILM-3(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay cisco
• ILM-3(config-if)# frame-relay pvc multipoint
* ILM-3(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay ietf
• ILM-3(config-if)# frame-relay lmi-type ansi
• ILM-3(config-if)# frame-relay pvc point-to-point
20 The output of the show interfaces serial 0/0 command for a frame-relay connection indicates that the serial line is up but the line protocol is down. What are possible causes for this? (Choose two.)
* There is an LMI-type mismatch between the Frame Relay switch and the router.
* There is no clock present on the serial interface.
• The interface is shut down.
• RARP is not functioning on the router.
• The cable is disconnected.
21 After configuring a dialup ISDN circuit, a network associate begins testing the dialup connection. When attempting to ping a host on the remote network, the local router does not attempt to dial the remote access server. Which of the following are possible errors in this configuration? (Choose three.)
• PPP authentication is not properly configured.
* No dialer map is configured.
• The ISDN circuit connected to the remote access server is busy.
* No interesting traffic is defined.
* No route is determined to the remote network.
• A wrong number is configured in the dial string.
22 When configuring a Frame Relay network with subinterfaces, which commands are configured on the subinterface? (Choose three.)
* frame-relay interface-dlci
• encapsulation frame-relay ietf
* ip address
* frame-relay map
• switch type
23 Below is a list of DDR steps. Which of the following identifies the proper order of DDR?
1 - dial number is looked up
2 - interesting traffic triggers DDR
3 - route to destination is determined
4 - call is made
• 1,2,3,4
• 1,3,2,4
• 2,3,1,4
• 2,1,3,4
* 3,2,1,4
• 3,1,2,4
24 A network administrator issued the command show frame-relay pvc. The response from the router shows the status of a PVC as deleted. What is the reason for this output?
• The DLCI is using the wrong LMI type.
• The DLCI is usable but has little activity.
• The DLCI is programmed in the switch but the circuit is not usable.
* The DLCI was formerly programmed in the switch but is no longer there.
25
The serial PPP link between the Left and Right routers is configured as shown in the diagram. Which configuration issue explains why the link is unable to establish a PPP session
• The IP addresses must be on different subnets.
* The usernames are misconfigured.
• The passwords must be different for the CHAP authentication.
• The clock rate must be 56000.
• The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
• Interface serial 0/0 on Left must connect to interface serial 0/1 on Right.
26 Which protocol should be chosen to support WAN connectivity in a multi-vendor system and provide strong security through authentication?
• NAT with DHCP
• Frame Relay
• HDLC with encryption
• HDLC with CHAP
• PPP with PAP
* PPP with CHAP
27
Refer to the exhibit. Which statements describe why the workstation with the IP address 192.168.89.99 cannot access the Internet? (Choose two.)
• The NAT outside interface is not configured properly.
* The NAT inside interface is not configured properly.
• The access control list does not include the IP address 192.168.1.99/28 to access the Internet.
• The NAT pool is not properly configured to use routable outside addresses.
* The NAT pool is not properly configured to use the access control list for NAT.
28 After the ISDN BRI interface is configured, which command can be used to verify that the router is communicating correctly with the ISDN switch?
• show dialer
* show isdn status
• show interfaces bri0/0:1
• show interfaces serial0/0.1
29 How are the settings for ISDN switch type and SPIDs determined for a BRI interface configuration?
• assigned by the network administrator
• randomly, so long as they are not duplicated on the network
• by trial and error
• dynamically via Inverse ARP
• assigned by IANA
* assigned by the service provider
30 A network administrator is having difficulty in establishing a serial link between a Cisco router and a router from another vendor. Both routers are configured for HDLC encapsulation. Which statements are true regarding this configuration? (Choose two.)
* The Cisco HDLC frame uses a proprietary "Type" field that may not be compatible with equipment of other vendors.
• HDLC requires a clock rate to be configured on the routers at both ends of the serial link.
* PPP encapsulation is recommended for serial links between equipment from multiple vendors.
• Usernames must be configured at both ends of the HDLC serial link.
• The HDLC vendor type must be enabled on the Cisco router.
• There is a mismatch in the HDLC authentication password configurations.
31
A system administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity issue between two routers in a new installation. The administrator enters the debug ppp authentication command on the WHSE router. The graphic shows a part of the output received. From this output, what is the most likely cause of this connectivity issue?
• There is not a route to the remote router.
• The ISDN circuit on the remote router has failed.
* The username/password was not properly configured on the WHSE router.
• The remote router has a different authentication protocol configured.
32 A system administrator needs to configure the regional office with ISDN for DDR connections to three remote sites. Each remote site requires different IP subnets, different encapsulations, and different authentication methods. The sites will not be connected at the same time. The company would like to accomplish this in the most cost effective manner. What method can the system administrator use to accomplish this task using the fewest B channels?
• Install and configure a PRI.
• Install and configure a BRI interface with separate SPIDs for each remote site.
• Install and configure a BRI with multiple switch types in global configuration.
* Install and configure a BRI using dialer profiles.
• Install and configure a separate BRI for each remote site.
33 Which IP addresses are defined by RFC 1918 as private addresses? (Choose three.)
• 172.55.16.0.16
* 172.17.0.0/16
• 224.200.175.0/24
* 192.168.168.0/22
• 10.88.179.0/29
• 17.250.0.0/16
34 Which of the following statements are correct regarding PAT? (Choose two.)
• PAT is the best method to provide consistent global addresses for network servers.
• PAT can only be configured to use one IP address, which is usually the IP address of the serial interface of the router.
• PAT uses unique source port numbers on the inside local IP address to distinguish between translations.
* PAT uses unique source port numbers on the inside global IP address to distinguish between translations.
* When PAT is configured to use a pool of IP addresses and exhausts the ports of the first IP address, the router will move to the next available IP address.
35 Which circuit-switched WAN technology is often used to provide a backup for a leased line and additional capacity during peak usage times?
• X.25
• DSL
* ISDN
• cable modem
36 Which of the following is the order for the three phases of establishing a PPP serial link with authentication?
• authentication, link-establishment, network layer protocols
• authentication, network layer protocols, link-establishment
• network layer protocols, link-establishment, authentication
• network layer protocols, authentication, link-establishment
* link-establishment, authentication, network layer protocols
• link-establishment, network layer protocols, authentication
37 What causes a DDR call to be placed?
• dial string
• DLCI
• idle time out
* interesting traffic
• PVC
38 A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for 25 hosts at an insurance agency. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this company. What can the administrator do to provide Internet access to all 25 users at the same time?
* Configure the router with dynamic NAT with PAT.
• Configure the router with dynamic NAT for 25 users.
• Configure the router with DHCP and static NAT.
• Configure the router with static NAT for all 25 users.
• This cannot be done with only two public addresses.
39
A network administrator must provide WAN connectivity between the Central office and three remote sites: East Branch, West Branch, and Remote. The East Branch and West Branch offices receive sales orders and transmit shipping confirmations to the Central office consistently throughout the day. The Remote office is staffed by one salesperson who travels through the northwestern territory. The salesperson occasionally needs to connect to the Central office for e-mail access. How should the network administrator connect these sites to the Central office? (Choose two.)
• Connect the East Branch and West Branch remote offices with ISDN connections.
* Connect the East Branch and West Branch offices with Frame Relay connections.
• Connect the East Branch and West Branch offices with POTS dial-up connections.
• Connect the Remote office with a Frame Relay connection.
• Connect the Remote office with an ISDN connection.
* Connect the Remote office with a POTS dial-up connection.
40 Which of the following ISDN protocols is responsible for call setup and call teardown?
• ITU-T Q.921
* ITU-T Q.931
• ITU-T I.430
• ITU-T I.431
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